IBSAT 2017 Model Paper 2 Sample Question Paper 3 with Solution PDF available now

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 21, 2025

The ICFAI Business School Aptitude Test (IBSAT) is a national-level entrance exam conducted by the ICFAI Foundation for Higher Education for admission into MBA, PGPM, and PhD programs at IBS campuses across India. The IBSAT Model Paper - 2 Sample Paper 3 with Solutions offers a comprehensive practice set covering all major sections—Verbal Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, Data Interpretation, and Reading Comprehension—to help candidates strengthen their preparation.

IBSAT Model Paper - 2 Sample Paper 3 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

IBSAT Model Paper - 2 Sample Paper 3 Question Paper PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

IBSAT Model Paper - 2 Sample Paper 3 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

DISASTER

  • (a) Trouble
  • (b) Distress
  • (c) Hardship
  • (d) Calamity
  • (e) Poorness

Question 2:

SUMMIT

  • (a) Proposal
  • (b) Peak
  • (c) Resource
  • (d) Expansion
  • (e) Evidence

Question 3:

IMPERIOUS

  • (A) Domineering
  • (B) Ravenous
  • (C) Striking
  • (D) Effervescent
  • (E) Humdrum

Question 4:

QUIESCENT

  • (A) Serene
  • (B) Concomitant
  • (C) Dormant
  • (D) Clammy
  • (E) Hopeless

Question 5:

MELEE

  • (A) Kindness
  • (B) Fervor
  • (C) Rush
  • (D) Melody
  • (E) Brawl

Question 6:

PROHIBIT

  • (a) Prevent
  • (b) Allow
  • (c) Honor
  • (d) Divert
  • (e) Admire

Question 7:

PACIFY

  • (a) Operate
  • (b) Advise
  • (c) Direct
  • (d) Aggravate
  • (e) Execute

Question 8:

VITIATE

  • (a) Trust
  • (b) Deaden
  • (c) Drain
  • (d) Rectify
  • (e) Amuse

Question 9:

TRITE

  • (a) Peaceful
  • (b) Powerful
  • (c) Noiseless
  • (d) Skeptical
  • (e) Original

Question 10:

TACITURN

  • (a) Belligerent
  • (b) Conceited
  • (c) Loquacious
  • (d) Restive
  • (e) Challenging

Question 11:

Gloves : Hand :: Scarf :

  • (a) Feet
  • (b) Waist
  • (c) Head
  • (d) Arm
  • (e) Wrist

Question 12:

Artist : Paint :: Sculptor :

  • (a) Chisel
  • (b) Water
  • (c) Color
  • (d) Stone
  • (e) Drill

Question 13:

Song : Cycle :: Sonnet :

  • (a) Ballad
  • (b) Melody
  • (c) Rhyme
  • (d) Sequence
  • (e) Epic

Question 14:

Lumber : Bear :: Waddle :

  • (a) Parrot
  • (b) Pigeon
  • (c) Goose
  • (d) Hawk
  • (e) Sparrow

Question 15:

Watch : Wrist :: Girdle :

  • (a) Waist
  • (b) Finger
  • (c) Elbow
  • (d) Arm
  • (e) Neck

Question 16:

Science is the knowledge by which we can ______ nature and use it for our ______.

  • (a) estimate … profit
  • (b) imagine … life
  • (c) understand … benefit
  • (d) plan … growth
  • (e) maintain … prosperity

Question 17:

The culture of a person, society or nation is ______ on how the citizens ______ children, women and aged people.

  • (a) calculated … manage
  • (b) estimated … nurture
  • (c) settled … honor
  • (d) measured … treat
  • (e) understood … address

Question 18:

If a nation is unable to come to ______ on interpreting its own past, it will be unable to ______ its national interests.

  • (a) conclusion … plan
  • (b) terms … design
  • (c) decision … comprehend
  • (d) consensus … formulate
  • (e) consolidation … meet

Question 19:

Globalization ______ both prosperity and ______.

  • (a) causes … development
  • (b) spreads … distress
  • (c) reveals … doom
  • (d) condemns … bliss
  • (e) transmits … generosity

Question 20:

A ______ approach in considering options and working on them even before a job loss stares us in the face can help us get ______.

  • (a) planned … moving
  • (b) simulative … going
  • (c) tentative … started
  • (d) fair … advancing
  • (e) proactive … ahead

Question 21:

A little / of good habits / make our / life happy. No error

  • (a) A little
  • (b) of good habits
  • (c) make our
  • (d) life happy.
  • (e) No error
Correct Answer: (C) make our
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the subject–verb agreement issue.

The phrase “make our life happy” is incorrect because “make” should be in the singular form, “makes,” to agree with the singular subject “a little.”


Step 2: Correction.

Correct sentence: “A little of good habits makes our life happy.”


Step 3: Conclusion.

The error lies in part (C).
Quick Tip: When using “a little,” the verb should be singular. For plural subjects, use “a few.”


Question 22:

He planned / to not go / on a vacation / this year. No error

  • (a) He planned
  • (b) to not go
  • (c) on a vacation
  • (d) this year.
  • (e) No error
Correct Answer: (B) to not go
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the incorrect word order.

The correct phrase should use the infinitive form “not to go” rather than “to not go.” The adverb "not" should be placed after the infinitive "to" rather than between "to" and the verb.


Step 2: Correction.

Correct sentence: “He planned not to go on a vacation this year.”


Step 3: Conclusion.

The error lies in part (B) due to the incorrect word order for the infinitive verb form.
Quick Tip: For infinitives, the adverb “not” should follow the verb “to” (e.g., “not to go”).


Question 23:

Language cannot be static; it must constant evolve to keep up with changing times and remain relevant. No error

  • (a) Language cannot be static;
  • (b) it must constant evolve
  • (c) to keep up with changing times
  • (d) and remain relevant.
  • (e) No error
Correct Answer: (B) it must constant evolve
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the error in usage.

The phrase “must constant evolve” is incorrect. The correct form should be “must constantly evolve.” “Constant” is an adjective, and the adverb “constantly” should be used to modify the verb “evolve.”


Step 2: Correction.

Correct sentence: “Language cannot be static; it must constantly evolve to keep up with changing times and remain relevant.”


Step 3: Conclusion.

The error lies in part (B).
Quick Tip: When modifying a verb, always use an adverb, such as “constantly” instead of an adjective like “constant.”


Question 24:

If he would have taken rest, as advised by the doctor, he might not have had a second heart attack. No error

  • (a) If he would have taken rest,
  • (b) as advised by the doctor,
  • (c) he might not have
  • (d) had a second heart attack.
  • (e) No error
Correct Answer: (A) If he would have taken rest
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the incorrect conditional structure.

The error lies in the use of the “would have” structure. In a conditional sentence that discusses an unreal past situation, we should use the past perfect, not the conditional perfect. The correct form would be “If he had taken rest.”


Step 2: Correction.

Correct sentence: “If he had taken rest, as advised by the doctor, he might not have had a second heart attack.”


Step 3: Conclusion.

The error lies in part (A) due to the incorrect use of the conditional “would have” instead of the past perfect “had.”
Quick Tip: Use “had” for unreal past conditions in the third conditional, not “would have.”


Question 25:

Minton is an outstanding boxer, with tremendous confidence at his own ability. No error

  • (a) Minton is an
  • (b) outstanding boxer,
  • (c) with tremendous confidence
  • (d) at his own ability.
  • (e) No error
Correct Answer: (D) at his own ability.
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the prepositional error.

The preposition “at” is incorrect when referring to ability. The correct preposition should be “in” or “with,” as “in his ability” or “with his ability” are both appropriate.


Step 2: Correction.

Correct sentence: “Minton is an outstanding boxer, with tremendous confidence in his own ability.”


Step 3: Conclusion.

The error lies in part (D) due to the incorrect preposition.
Quick Tip: Use the preposition “in” when referring to skill or ability (e.g., “confidence in his ability”).


Question 26:

All the members of the club was assembled to celebrate the fiftieth anniversary of the club.

  • (a) was assembled to celebrate
  • (b) were assembling to celebrate
  • (c) assembled to celebrate
  • (d) is being assembled to celebrate
  • (e) assembling to celebrate

Question 27:

A well-behaved boy is always obedient for his parents.

  • (a) always obedient for his parents
  • (b) always obedient of his parents
  • (c) always obedient to his parents
  • (d) obedient always to his parents
  • (e) No error

Question 28:

In many corporations, employees are replace by automated equipments so that to save money.

  • (a) Are replace by automated equipments so that to
  • (b) Are being replaced by automated equipment in order to
  • (c) Were replaced by automated equipment so as to
  • (d) Are replacing by automated equipment such that
  • (e) Replaces by automated equipment accordingly to

Question 29:

Tropical forests play a key role as the world’s carbon and wildlife reservoirs.

  • (a) Play a key role as the world’s
  • (b) Had played a key role in the world’s
  • (c) Have been played a key role at the world’s
  • (d) Has played a key role for the world’s
  • (e) Plays a key role beside the world’s

Question 30:

In view of the energy shortage, solar and wind energy will have to be systematically tapped.

  • (a) will have to be systematically tapped
  • (b) would have to be tapped systematically
  • (c) will have to be tapped systematically
  • (d) systematically has to be tapped
  • (e) systematically to be tapped

Question 31:

Technology and design that would encourage

P: Conservation and smart living in order to alleviate rather

Q: Than aggravate problems associated with urban growth

R: The process of expansion must incorporate clean

  • (a) SRQP
  • (b) SPQR
  • (c) PSQR
  • (d) SQRP
  • (e) QPSR

Question 32:

Norms follows in a long series of steps to ensure transparency

P: Laws and practices in terms of their consistency with human rights

Q: And accountability of multi-national corporations

S: The United Nations initiative to evaluate national corporate

  • (a) SQPR
  • (b) QSPR
  • (c) SPRQ
  • (d) QRSP
  • (e) SQPR

Question 33:

Developed countries, including European economies and to a lesser extent

P: Nevertheless, managed to maintain robust rates of economic growth

Q: Developing countries have been affected as well, but they have

R: Japan, have been hit by the crisis in the US

  • (a) QRSP
  • (b) SRQP
  • (c) RSQP
  • (d) PSRQ
  • (e) QSQR

Question 34:

Telescope arrays in the Northern and Southern hemispheres

P: In Leh for an international collaboration that is

Q: India plans to offer an astronomical site at Hanle

R: Exploring the possibility of setting up two large gamma-ray

  • (a) PSQR
  • (b) SPRQ
  • (c) RQSP
  • (d) QPRS
  • (e) QSRP

Question 35:

Harsh and draconian laws will not only violate the right to liberty granted by Article 21 of the Constitution

P: And other law enforcing agencies, which will have much more opportunity

Q: To extort money from the citizens, apart from impeding scientific and economic growth

R: But also lead to great evils such as an increase in corruption in the police

  • (a) PSQR
  • (b) QRPS
  • (c) SQPR
  • (d) QRSP
  • (e) RQPS

Question 36:

The unauthorized use or reproduction of another’s work.

  • (a) Copyright
  • (b) Patent
  • (c) Piracy
  • (d) Privacy
  • (e) Replica

Question 37:

A union or association formed for mutual benefit.

  • (a) Communion
  • (b) Ratification
  • (c) Trustee
  • (d) Alliance
  • (e) Society

Question 38:

An action that is bad or unacceptable, but not very serious.

  • (a) Felony
  • (b) Etiquette
  • (c) Misdemeanor
  • (d) Repression
  • (e) Concord

Question 39:

An animal or plant that lives in or on another animal or plant.

  • (a) Sycophant
  • (b) Bigot
  • (c) Proselyte
  • (d) Chauvinist
  • (e) Parasite

Question 40:

The practice or art of choosing, cooking and eating good food.

  • (a) Cuisine
  • (b) Catering
  • (c) Gastronomy
  • (d) Nutriment
  • (e) Buffet

Question 41:

Discipline is on the wane in schools and colleges these days.

  • (a) Increasing
  • (b) Becoming weaker
  • (c) Top priority
  • (d) At high standard
  • (e) Maintained

Question 42:

The robbery was committed in the wee hours of the day.

  • (a) After midnight
  • (b) At dawn
  • (c) At noontime
  • (d) In the evening
  • (e) Before sunset

Question 43:

She was sure to steal a march upon her rivals.

  • (a) Oppose
  • (b) Confront
  • (c) Outshine
  • (d) Avoid
  • (e) Compromise

Question 44:

The carrot and stick policy pays dividends in every organization.

  • (a) Rigorous training
  • (b) Continuous vigilance
  • (c) Democratic approach
  • (d) Reward and punishment
  • (e) Authoritative style

Question 45:

The class could not keep a straight face on hearing the strange pronunciation of the new teacher.

  • (a) Remain sober
  • (b) Remain calm
  • (c) Remain silent
  • (d) Remain indifferent
  • (e) Remain serious

Question 46:

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 46 in the above passage.

  • (a) Pose
  • (b) Level
  • (c) Give
  • (d) Strike
  • (e) Form

Question 47:

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 47 in the above passage.

  • (a) Heavy
  • (b) Strong
  • (c) Happy
  • (d) Vast
  • (e) Effective

Question 48:

From the following, select the appropriate word to replace number 48 in the above passage.

  • (a) Free
  • (b) Manage
  • (c) Relieve
  • (d) Delete
  • (e) Handle

Question 49:

From the following, select the appropriate word to replace number 49 in the above passage.

  • (a) Perish
  • (b) Ease
  • (c) Destroy
  • (d) Prevail
  • (e) Stop

Question 50:

From the following, select the appropriate word to replace number 50 in the above passage.

  • (a) Assertive
  • (b) Courageous
  • (c) Genuine
  • (d) Mild
  • (e) Noble

Question 51:

What can be inferred from the opening lines of the passage?

  • (a) The government’s policies are formulated through participatory process
  • (b) There is need for stricter legislation regarding women’s issues
  • (c) The policy recommends reservation for women
  • (d) Domestic violence is on the rise
  • (e) Women already had coparcenary rights

Question 52:

Pick out the true statement with regard to the policy.

  • (a) This is yet another pronouncement by the government
  • (b) It is a pioneering effort
  • (c) It is not based on the understanding of woman’s needs
  • (d) It has made many loud declarations
  • (e) In its formulation, participatory approach was not followed

Question 53:

According to the passage, what is the consequence of rural-urban migration?

  • (a) There will not be any development in rural areas
  • (b) Many women migrate to urban areas leaving their family in the rural areas
  • (c) Industries do not get sufficient manpower in rural areas
  • (d) Rural children’s education suffers badly
  • (e) A growing number of households are headed by women

Question 54:

What is the far-reaching impact of the policy?

  • (a) To render women coparcenary rights
  • (b) To prepare women to face the challenges
  • (c) To create an equal-opportunity police force
  • (d) To accord women a decision making role in political sphere
  • (e) To give women the power to rule the nation

Question 55:

Choose the statement which is not true.

  • (a) The policy gives a blueprint for a programme of action
  • (b) Women should be given greater control of police stations
  • (c) There is no bias in dowry cases though the law enforcement authorities are men
  • (d) For effective implementation, the government agencies will have to reorder their priorities
  • (e) The policy is based on the understanding of the needs of women

Question 56:

Which of the following has the danger of lapsing into tokenism?

  • (a) Socially progressive legislation
  • (b) Policy for women
  • (c) Coparcenary rights to women
  • (d) Reservation for women
  • (e) Man-woman relationships

Question 57:

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to 'lofty' as used in the passage.

  • (a) Purified
  • (b) Humble
  • (c) Inferior
  • (d) Exalted
  • (e) Undignified

Question 58:

The basic block in the effective implementation of the policy is

  • (a) Prevalent power structure in India
  • (b) Inadequate legislation
  • (c) Insensitive administration
  • (d) Lack of political will
  • (e) Male dominated law-enforcing authorities

Question 59:

What distinction does the author make between stress and anxiety?

  • (a) Compared to anxiety, stress is experienced only by a few people
  • (b) Americans are more prone to anxiety than stress
  • (c) Stress is the second most common health problem, which distinguishes it from anxiety
  • (d) Anxiety is more intense than stress
  • (e) Anxiety leads to stress

Question 60:

What is the positive effect of anxiety according to Mooney?

  • (a) It improves one’s health
  • (b) It helps to recognize danger
  • (c) It brings in mental peace
  • (d) It sometimes brings happiness
  • (e) It helps to overcome dangers

Question 61:

Anxiety disorder can best be described as

  • (a) Change in eating habits
  • (b) Ill-treating others for no reason
  • (c) Often bursting of anger
  • (d) Feeling anxious over trivial things
  • (e) Change in one’s behavior

Question 62:

People with anxiety disorder avoid

  • (A) Travelling
  • (B) Going to parties
  • (C) Leaving the house
  • (D) Activities that make them worried
  • (E) All the above

Question 63:

How do the people with social anxiety disorder behave?

  • (A) They experience intense worry over social interactions
  • (B) They worry about everyday tasks
  • (C) They sit idle at home
  • (D) They worry for no clear reason
  • (E) They judge others in a wrong way

Question 64:

Re-living a frightening event over and over again is known as

  • (A) Generalized anxiety disorder
  • (B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  • (C) Social anxiety disorder
  • (D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
  • (E) Excess anxiety

Question 65:

What are the different approaches available for treating anxiety disorder?

  • (A) Meditation, exercise and massages
  • (B) Training, controlling and rest
  • (C) Therapy, exercise and medication
  • (D) Self control, commitment and acceptance
  • (E) None of the above

Question 66:

What is the technical name given to the new treatment by Forsyth?

  • (A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder therapy
  • (B) Acceptance and commitment therapy
  • (C) Post-traumatic stress disorder therapy
  • (D) Physiotherapy
  • (E) Behavior control therapy

Question 67:

Why does the author refer to Thomas Hardy's poem?

  • (a) To estimate the role played by direct properties attributable to one’s parentage
  • (b) To underline the significance of the biological process whereby genetic factors are transmitted from one generation to the next
  • (c) To emphasize the importance of the total of inherited attributes that rarely come by natural descent
  • (d) To highlight the purpose of genetic endowment which can be traced through the family face
  • (e) To evaluate the function of genes that are seldom present among the descendants of one individual

Question 68:

What did the scientists at JCVI do?

  • (a) They circumvented nature’s constraint of direct descent
  • (b) They bypassed nature’s laws and produced a natural gene
  • (c) They invented an imperishable gene which is synthetic in nature
  • (d) They ignored the theory of inheritance and created an intrinsic gene
  • (e) They produced a gene which can be preserved permanently

Question 69:

What was the outcome of their research?

  • (a) They analyzed the DNA sequence of the synthetic gene in the laboratory for the first time
  • (b) They contrasted the properties of a synthetic gene with that of a natural one
  • (c) They created a gene sequence in artificial conditions which could undergo mutation
  • (d) They produced the first synthetic genome in the laboratory which is analogous to the natural one
  • (e) They studied the functions of a natural gene and a synthetic gene under controlled conditions of a laboratory

Question 70:

The DNA pieces of the synthetic genome were stitched together by using

  • (A) The method of biochemical synthesis
  • (B) The biochemical machinery of a host cell
  • (C) The biochemical genome of a host cell
  • (D) The DNA sequence of a host cell
  • (E) The synthesized DNA pieces of a host cell

Question 71:

What is the author’s gut feeling?

  • (a) Scientists will invent a mechanism that might trigger a genome and convert it into the bacterium
  • (b) Scientists will succeed in creating a synthetic genome which has the characteristics of a natural one
  • (c) Scientists will improve upon the synthetic gene and find an alternative which is akin to the proto-cell of the bacterium
  • (d) Scientists will prove that the DNA structure of a proto-cell is similar to that of an artificial one
  • (e) Scientists will find a way to insert the bacterial genome into the proto-cell and somehow trigger it to make the bacterium itself

Question 72:

Which of the following words aptly substitutes ‘flummox’ as used in the passage?

  • (a) Control
  • (b) Petrify
  • (c) Bewilder
  • (d) Challenge
  • (e) Demystify

Question 73:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is not true?

  • (A) Thomas Hardy’s poem, Heredity, reflects the DNA in a human being’s genome
  • (B) Creating life in a lab will surely raise pertinent questions pertaining to ethics
  • (C) Scientists, in future, will be able to create life under artificial conditions
  • (D) Cloning of Dolly, the sheep, has invited the wrath of people because the sheep soon died a miserable death
  • (E) Two centuries ago, urea was synthesized in a chemical laboratory

Question 74:

A recently initiated technology, which is ethically acceptable, is

  • (A) Assembling the complex biological molecule
  • (B) Gene sequencing
  • (C) Assisted reproduction
  • (D) Stitching together of an artificial cell
  • (E) Inserting a proto-cell into the bacterium

Question 75:

According to the author’s opinion, what would be the result of cloning a human being?

  • (A) It will invite people’s indignation
  • (B) It would be a wonderful prospect for humanity
  • (C) It might change the face of the earth
  • (D) It will be looked down as a sin
  • (E) It will prove to be a global catastrophe

Question 76:

By using the phrase technological trajectory traversed by man, the writer means:

  • (A) Man has progressed stupendously
  • (B) Man has become a slave of technology
  • (C) Man has no regressive progression
  • (D) Man has enlightened revolutionary minds

Question 77:

Why does the writer compare Noah’s Ark and the biotechnological revolution to the technological trajectory traversed by man?

  • (A) He does so to substantiate his account
  • (B) He does so to beguile the reader
  • (C) He does so because he feels that these developments should be brought to light
  • (D) He does so because it has been a revolutionizing progression

Question 78:

The phrase ‘dreams are multi-hued today’ implies

  • (A) They are of various colors
  • (B) They have greater scope of materialization
  • (C) They have limited forms
  • (D) They are eagerly sought after

Question 79:

The purpose of metal propellers is to

  • (A) Reach inside malignant tumors
  • (B) Reach inside our cells
  • (C) Reach inside our tissues
  • (D) Reach inside the carcass

Question 80:

Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?

  • (a) Advancements have been a result of tremendous human endeavor
  • (b) Natural disasters propel us to work harder
  • (c) Dreams are not only multifarious but often soar beyond our reach
  • (d) The world is believed to have changed a great deal over the past 100 years

Question 81:

Sugar worth ₹15 per kg and ₹16 per kg is mixed with a third variety of some other cost in the ratio 1 : 2. If the mixture is of worth ₹20 per kg, what would be the cost of the third variety of sugar per kg?

  • (a) ₹15
  • (b) ₹19
  • (c) ₹20.50
  • (d) ₹22.50
  • (e) ₹24.50

Question 82:

Simplify the expression:
\[ \sqrt{\frac{1 - \sin \theta}{1 + \sin \theta}} + \sqrt{\frac{1 + \sin \theta}{1 - \sin \theta}} \div \frac{\sqrt{1 + \cos \theta}}{\sqrt{1 - \cos \theta}} - \frac{\sqrt{1 - \cos \theta}}{\sqrt{1 + \cos \theta}} \]

  • (a) 1
  • (b) \(\tan \theta\)
  • (c) \(2(\csc 2\theta + 1)\)
  • (d) \(4\csc 2\theta + 2\)
  • (e) \(2\cot \theta\)

Question 83:

Shyam has a square piece of paper of length 15 m. He put four circles on the edges of the square such that the edges of the square are centres of the circles and they touch each other at the midpoint of their respective sides. What is the area of the square which is not covered by the four circles (approx.)?

  • (A) 15 sq.m
  • (B) 20 sq.m
  • (C) 48 sq.m
  • (D) 29 sq.m
  • (E) 36 sq.m

Question 84:

The ratio between the speed of a boat and a stream is 3 : 1 respectively. If the boat covers 24 km in 3 hours downstream, what is the speed of the stream?

  • (A) 1.5 kmph
  • (B) 2 kmph
  • (C) 3 kmph
  • (D) 4 kmph
  • (E) 6 kmph

Question 85:

A certain sum placed at compound interest triples itself in 5 years. In how many years will it amount to nine times at the same rate of interest?

  • (A) 8 years
  • (B) 10 years
  • (C) 12 years
  • (D) 14 years
  • (E) 16 years

Question 86:

Krishna has certain number of coins numbered with a series of consecutive natural numbers starting with 1. He found that the sum of squares of all the numbers on the coins is 1753 times the sum of numbers on coins. How many coins does he have?

  • (A) 1753
  • (B) 2569
  • (C) 2629
  • (D) 3439
  • (E) 5259

Question 87:

The ratio between two numbers is 6 : 5. If 30% of the first number is 12, what would be 60% of the second number?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 20
  • (E) 23

Question 88:

In the given figure, if ∠CAT = 65° and ∠CAD = 45°, what is the value of ∠ACD? (Figure not to scale)


  • (A) 65°
  • (B) 85°
  • (C) 115°
  • (D) 125°
  • (E) 135°

Question 89:

Two numbers are in the ratio 8 : 11 and their LCM is 2816. What would be the difference between the two numbers?

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 84
  • (D) 96
  • (E) 256

Question 90:

If \( x \) is a positive integer satisfying \( 64 \leq x \leq 121 \) and \( y = \frac{x^2 + 4\sqrt{x}(x + 16) + 256}{x + 8\sqrt{x} + 16} \), then which of the following is satisfied by \( y \)?

  • (A) \( 39 \leq y \leq 68 \)
  • (B) \( 38 < y < 94 \)
  • (C) \( 40 < y \leq 68 \)
  • (D) \( 42 \leq y \leq 78 \)
  • (E) \( 52 \leq y \leq 88 \)

Question 91:

What is the value of \[ \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \ldots \infty}}}}} \; ? \]

  • (a) –7
  • (b) –6
  • (c) 6
  • (d) 7
  • (e) 42

Question 92:

An electronic company conducts a survey of 1500 houses for their products. The survey suggested that 862 houses own TV, 783 houses have AC, and 736 houses have washing machine. There were 95 houses having only TV, 136 houses having only AC, and 88 houses having only washing machine. There were 398 houses having all the three equipments. How many houses have only TV and washing machine but not AC?

  • (a) 65
  • (b) 119
  • (c) 184
  • (d) 185
  • (e) 213

Question 93:

Anu collected certain number of coins of denominations ₹1, ₹2, and ₹5. She has certain number of ₹2 coins, 4 times as many ₹1 coins as ₹5 coins and 15 more ₹2 coins than ₹1 coins. If the total value is ₹490, how many ₹2 coins are there?

  • (A) 11
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 60
  • (E) 70

Question 94:

Given quadratic equation is \( x^2 - |x| - 30 = 0 \). Then which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  • (A) \( x - 6 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( x + 6 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( x + 5 = 0 \)
  • (D) \( x + 7 = 0 \)
  • (E) Both (C) and (D)

Question 95:

P, Q and E start a joint venture, where they make an annual profit. P invested one-third of the capital for one-fourth of the time, Q invested one-fourth of the capital for one-half of the time and R invested the remainder of the capital for the entire year. P is a working partner and gets a salary of ₹10,000 per month. The profit after paying P’s salary is directly proportional to the sum each one has put and also to the square of the number of months for which each has put their sum in the venture. If in a year P earns ₹60,000 more than Q, then how much does P earn?

  • (A) ₹1,00,000
  • (B) ₹1,20,000
  • (C) ₹1,35,000
  • (D) ₹1,50,000
  • (E) ₹1,80,000

Question 96:

Given \( A = x + y^2 + z^3 \). If \( x \) increases by 6300%, \( y \) increases by 700%, and \( z \) increases by 300%, then what is the percentage increase in the value of \( A \)?

  • (A) 1200%
  • (B) 1800%
  • (C) 2600%
  • (D) 3300%
  • (E) 6300%

Question 97:

The charge for sending a telegram is constant for the first 10 or less words and an amount proportional to the number of words exceeding 10. If the charge for sending a 15-word telegram is ₹3.00 and that for a 20-word telegram is ₹4.25, how much would it cost to send a 35-word telegram?

  • (A) ₹8.00
  • (B) ₹9.50
  • (C) ₹10.50
  • (D) ₹11.25
  • (E) ₹12.50

Question 98:

There are eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W standing in a row and four distinct articles A, B, C, and D are to be given to four people. No four neighboring persons receive an article. How many ways can this distribution be done?

  • (A) 1680 ways
  • (B) 1560 ways
  • (C) 1440 ways
  • (D) 1380 ways
  • (E) 1320 ways

Question 99:

Gopi constructed a right-angled triangle. By modifying the dimensions of the first triangle, he drew another triangle. The modifications are — the largest side is increased by 5 cm, the smallest side is doubled, and the third side is increased by 50%. If the triangle formed with these new dimensions has equal angles, then what is the perimeter of the new triangle?

  • (A) 45 cm
  • (B) 60 cm
  • (C) 90 cm
  • (D) 120 cm
  • (E) 150 cm

Question 100:

The boat will sink when the weight on it increases beyond 350 kg. There is a hole through which water leaks in at the rate of 0.4 kg/s. The weight of the boat is 1200 kg, and the weight of the boatman is 48 kg. The boatman throws out water at the rate of 0.04 kg/s. There are four passengers whose weights are 42.5 kg, 53.5 kg, 43.5 kg, and 54.5 kg. How long will the boat float?

  • (A) 60 hours
  • (B) 80 hours
  • (C) 96 hours
  • (D) 100 hours
  • (E) 120 hours

Question 101:

A committee is to be formed from amongst 9 boys and 6 girls. In how many ways can the boys and girls divide themselves into groups of three so that no group has more than 2 girls and no group has all boys?

  • (a) \(15 \times 9!\)
  • (b) \(20 \times 9!\)
  • (c) \(45 \times 8!\)
  • (d) \(\frac{45}{2} \times 9!\)
  • (e) \(\frac{45}{2} \times 8!\)

Question 102:

The populations of two cities X and Y are equal. The population of city X increases in two successive years by 15% and 20% respectively, and that of city Y increases successively by 10% and 30% respectively. If the difference in the population of two cities after 2 years is 55,980, then what was the total population of the two cities initially?

  • (a) 3,11,000
  • (b) 5,55,000
  • (c) 6,22,000
  • (d) 6,88,000
  • (e) 7,22,000

Question 103:

A box contains 4 blue, 2 green and 3 red balls and another box contains 4 red, 3 green, and 5 blue balls. A ball is picked up at random from one of the boxes. What is the probability that the ball is blue?

  • (A) 2/9
  • (B) 5/24
  • (C) 19/72
  • (D) 29/72
  • (E) 31/72

Question 104:

A started a business with a capital of ₹24,000. B joined him after a month with a capital of ₹22,000 and C joined A and B with a capital of ₹20,000 and new partners joined in this manner so on till L joined in the last month with a capital of ₹2,000. What is the total profit if D got ₹72,000 more than L?

  • (A) ₹2,42,500
  • (B) ₹3,40,000
  • (C) ₹5,85,000
  • (D) ₹7,25,000
  • (E) ₹10,80,000

Question 105:

What is the sum of the factors of 27000?

  • (A) 11700
  • (B) 23400
  • (C) 46800
  • (D) 70200
  • (E) 93600

Question 106:

A number when divided by 7 leaves a remainder \( x \). When divided by 19 it leaves a remainder \( 2x \). Also, when divided by 39 it leaves a remainder \( 3x \). If \( x = 3 \), then what is the least possible value of such number?

  • (A) 101
  • (B) 211
  • (C) 633
  • (D) 844
  • (E) 1266

Question 107:

What is the simplified value of \[ \frac{1.08 \times 1.08 \times 1.08 \times 1.08 - 0.92 \times 0.92 \times 0.92 \times 0.92}{1.08^2 + 0.92^2 + 2 \times 1.08 \times 0.92} \]
correct to two decimal places?

  • (A) 0.08
  • (B) 0.16
  • (C) 0.32
  • (D) 0.64
  • (E) 0.01

Question 108:

A trader buys 240 watches for ₹50,400 and he marks each of them at ₹320. He gives a discount of 15% on each watch and gives 1 watch free on a purchase of 5 watches. What is his minimum possible overall percentage of profit?

  • (A) 5.9%
  • (B) 6.1%
  • (C) 6.6%
  • (D) 7.2%
  • (E) 7.9%

Question 109:

The ratio of selling prices of four articles is 3 : 5 : 6 : 8 and their profits are 20%, 25%, 20% and 25% respectively. What is the overall percentage of profit on selling the four articles?

  • (A) 11%
  • (B) \(22 \dfrac{1}{12}%\)
  • (C) 24%
  • (D) \(28 \dfrac{1}{12}%\)
  • (E) 36%

Question 110:

A chart consists of numbers from 1 to 360. What is the sum of all the numbers remained on the chart after removing all the multiples of 2, multiples of 3 and multiples of 5?

  • (A) 9876
  • (B) 17280
  • (C) 34560
  • (D) 51840
  • (E) 69120

Question 111:

Two trains are travelling on two adjacent tracks. What would be their respective speeds?


Statement 1: The relative speed when the trains are travelling in the same direction is 30 kmph.

Statement 2: The relative speed when the trains are travelling in the opposite direction is 90 kmph.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 112:

A set contains six odd numbers. What is its median?


Statement 1: Sum of 6 odd numbers is 300 and they are consecutive.

Statement 2: The mean of six numbers is 20.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 113:

A \( A \in \mathbb{Z} \). Is \( A \) divisible by 45?


Statement 1: The number is divisible by 15.

Statement 2: The number is divisible by 315.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 114:

A family has four members W, X, Y, and Z. How is Y related to X?


Statement 1: Z is the sister of X and daughter of Y.

Statement 2: W is the father of Y and Y is the mother of Z, who is the brother of X.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 115:

A person wants to purchase 1,000 pieces of article A and 800 pieces of article B. There is an offer price on these two articles that for every purchase of 4 pieces of article B, 1 piece of article A is given free. What percentage of amount should he spend on article A to fulfill his requirement?


Statement 1: Ratio of price of article A to article B is 3 : 5.

Statement 2: Price of article A is one fourth of the price of article B.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 116:

a, b and c are three positive integers. What is the value of \( a^2 + b^2 + c^2 \)?


Statement 1: \( a^2 + b^2 = 17 \) and \( c \) is the arithmetic mean of \( a \) and \( b \).

Statement 2: The geometric mean of \( a \) and \( b \) is 2.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 117:

A right circular cone (PQR) is cut into two parts, cone (C) and frustum (F) by a plane parallel to base. What is the ratio of volume of C to the volume of F?


Statement 1: PQR is twice the radius of C.

Statement 2: PQR is been cut off at the middle of its height.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 118:

In the figure below, what is the area of the smaller circle?


Statement 1: The two larger circles have same radii of 8 cm each and O’O” is 12 cm.

Statement 2: The centres O, O’ and O” of the three circles are collinear.


  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 119:

What is the unit’s digit of the number \( (8pqr)^{64} \), where p, q, and r are the hundredth, tenth and units digits of the number?


Statement 1: The product of p and q is 12.

Statement 2: The product of q and r is 24 and r is greater than 4.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 120:

Ritu, Deep, Lakshya, Krish, Suja, Adi and Anu are seven friends and belong to the same family. Ritu has a son and a daughter. Krish and Deep are males. Suja and Lakshya are females. What is the relationship between Suja and Adi?


Statement 1: Ritu has a grandson and a granddaughter and Anu is Krish’s niece.

Statement 2: Suja is Lakshya’s sister-in-law and Deep has two children, Adi and Anu.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 121:

A ship was moving towards the lighthouse on the shore with uniform speed. A man standing on the lighthouse observes the ship. Eight minutes later, he finds that the angle of depression was 45°. In how much time does the ship reach the lighthouse?


Statement 1: Initially, the man standing on the lighthouse observes the ship at an angle of depression of 30°.

Statement 2: The speed of the ship was 6 km/h and the height of the lighthouse is 300 m.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 122:

P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be arranged in a circular table. Q does not sit opposite T. S and R are together. What is the sequence of their seating in clockwise direction?


Statement 1: R sits to the left of P.

Statement 2: T does not want to sit near U.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 123:

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G go for a movie. Out of these, AD, FC, and BG are couples of which A, F and B are males. The couples sit with husbands and wives in the left to right order. Who sat at the two corners?


Statement 1: E sits at the centre with D sitting 2 places to the left of E.

Statement 2: B does not sit at the corner and nor does G.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 124:

If the length of a rectangle is increased by 5 cm and the breadth is decreased by 5 cm, area of the rectangle remained same. What are the dimensions of the given rectangle?


Statement 1: If the length is decreased by 12 cm and the breadth increased by 8 cm, even then the area is unaltered.

Statement 2: Breadth of the rectangle is 4 less than twice its length.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 125:

Teams A, B, C, D and E play a certain number of matches in a tournament. Three points are awarded for a win, 1 point for a tie and 0 for a loss. At the end of the tournament, team B acquired 12 points, team C acquired 6 points, team D acquired 3 points and team E zero points. How many points does A win?


Statement 1: The points won by A is 9 more than the points won by B in his victories.

Statement 2: The total number of matches played by B is 5.

  • (a) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (b) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (c) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (d) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (e) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 126:

If in 2007, each tin was exported at the same cost as that of in 2006, what would be the value (in ₹ crores) of total exports in 2007?

  • (a) 425
  • (b) 590.28
  • (c) 605.50
  • (d) 625
  • (e) 650.50

Question 127:

What is the average number of tins exported over the given period?

  • (a) 306.7 lakhs
  • (b) 289.2 lakhs
  • (c) 202.0 lakhs
  • (d) 157.4 lakhs
  • (e) 148.0 lakhs

Question 128:

What is the ratio of total tins exported (in lakhs) to the value of tins exported over the given period?

  • (a) 1157 : 2805
  • (b) 697 : 3900
  • (c) 854 : 1865
  • (d) 37 : 7950
  • (e) 841 : 37800

Question 129:

The rate of increase in quantity exported from year 2006 to 2007 is equal to the rate of decrease in the quantity exported from year 2007 to 2008. What would be the approximate quantity of tins (in lakhs) exported in the year 2008?

  • (a) 70
  • (b) 85
  • (c) 97
  • (d) 146
  • (e) 153

Question 130:

If there is a constant rate of increase in the value of export from 2006, what would be the value of export (in ₹ crores) in the year 2008?

  • (a) 510
  • (b) 540
  • (c) 555.56
  • (d) 575.80
  • (e) 585.80

Question 131:

If the salary of Balu is ₹15,000, what would be the expenditure on Investments and Food?

  • (a) ₹5450
  • (b) ₹4200
  • (c) ₹4560
  • (d) ₹5700
  • (e) ₹5900

Question 132:

If both Balu and Paul get equal income, what is the ratio of their expenditures on Food and Clothing?

  • (a) 1 : 1
  • (b) 1 : 2
  • (c) 3 : 1
  • (d) 2 : 3
  • (e) 16 : 11

Question 133:

If both Balu and Paul get equal income, what would be the difference of their expenditures on all except Investments?

  • (a) 1% of income
  • (b) 0.50% of income
  • (c) 0.01% of income
  • (d) 0.05% of income
  • (e) 2% of income

Question 134:

If Paul’s income was ₹13,500, what would be his average expenditure on Investments, Rent and Travelling?

  • (a) ₹2540
  • (b) ₹2125
  • (c) ₹2490
  • (d) ₹2650
  • (e) ₹2700

Question 135:

What is the sum of angles subtended by expenditures of Paul on Travel, Rent and Medical?

  • (a) 207.2°
  • (b) 165.8°
  • (c) 157.5°
  • (d) 207°
  • (e) 187.2°

Question 136:

The total number of collaborations approved from 1997 – 2004 with USA firms are 493. What percent of the total collaborations does this constitute?

  • (a) 13.2%
  • (b) 14.5%
  • (c) 15.4%
  • (d) 16.5%
  • (e) 17.5%

Question 137:

In 2004, the number of collaborations approved from UK, Germany and Japan exceeded that from USA by (approx.)

  • (a) 48
  • (b) 54
  • (c) 68
  • (d) 85
  • (e) 90

Question 138:

What is the ratio of the highest to the lowest number of collaborations approved in the period 1997-2004?

  • (a) 45 : 23
  • (b) 41 : 25
  • (c) 34 : 15
  • (d) 28 : 19
  • (e) 27 : 14

Question 139:

In 2005, if the number of collaborations approved with USA increased by 50%, and if Japan has to maintain its share at its level as in 2004, then by what approximate percent should the number of collaborations be increased, if all other states maintain the same number of collaborations as in 2004?

  • (a) 22%
  • (b) 24%
  • (c) 26%
  • (d) 28%
  • (e) 30%

Question 140:

If in the year 2005, the total number of collaborations approved was 980, and if the same proportions were maintained as in the year 2004, then the approximate number of multinational collaborations from UK alone would be

  • (a) 112
  • (b) 106
  • (c) 102
  • (d) 88
  • (e) 80
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