TISSNET, was an entrance exam conducted by Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) at the all-India level for admission to its various postgraduate programs. However, from the 2023-24 academic session, TISS has adopted the CUET-PG for Postgraduate programs and CAT scores for a few courses, where the TISSNET exam is no more applicable.
TISSNET (HUQP20 - Psychology, Applied Psychology, Health Psychology etc.) Question Paper With Solution PDF is available here.
TISSNET Psychology Question Paper 2024 PDF Download
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TISSNET Psychology Question Paper With Solution
Question 1:
As a science, which of the following does psychology use as its primary source of information?
- 1. Common sense
- 2. Systematically collected data
- 3. Informal observation of the world around us
- 4. Laypersons’ opinions
View Solution
Solution:
- Psychology is considered a science because it relies on empirical methods, which involve systematic collection and analysis of data. Unlike common sense or informal observations, which can be biased and subjective, psychological research follows structured methodologies, such as experiments, surveys, and observational studies, to ensure reliability and validity of findings. For example, experimental studies on memory follow strict procedures to control variables and isolate cause-and-effect relationships.
Psychological research on everyday human concerns reveals that:
- 1. Such topics are too complex to study
- 2. Subjects will not volunteer for research on many topics
- 3. Common sense beliefs are not always true
- 4. Methods used in other sciences are not relevant to the study of human behavior
View Solution
Solution:
- Common sense beliefs often appear logical but lack empirical support. For example, the belief that multitasking improves productivity is contradicted by research showing that it reduces efficiency and increases error rates. Psychological studies use systematic experiments and data collection to uncover the actual mechanisms of human behavior, which often differ from intuitive assumptions.
Conscious forcing of desires or thoughts out of consciousness is called:
- 1. Inhibition
- 2. Denial
- 3. Suppression
- 4. Projection
View Solution
Solution:
- Suppression is a deliberate effort to keep unwanted thoughts or feelings out of awareness. For example, a person might consciously choose not to think about a stressful exam until they are ready to study. This distinguishes suppression from repression, where the process is unconscious. Suppression is a short-term coping mechanism that allows individuals to focus on immediate tasks without distraction.
"Personality is fixed in the early years of life and subject to little change thereafter." This view is known as:
- 1. Historical Determinism
- 2. Interactionism
- 3. Cultural Background
- 4. Janteloven
View Solution
Solution:
- Historical determinism, often rooted in psychoanalytic theory, emphasizes that critical events in early childhood (e.g., parental relationships, traumatic experiences) shape personality in a way that becomes resistant to change. Sigmund Freud's theories, for instance, argue that unresolved conflicts during psychosexual stages of development have lasting effects on personality traits and behaviors.
Which one of the following methods of reliability examines the performance of a psychological test over time?
- 1. Test-Retest Reliability
- 2. Split-Half Reliability
- 3. Inter-Scorer Reliability
- 4. Alternate Form Reliability
View Solution
Solution:
- Test-retest reliability measures the consistency of test results over time by administering the same test to the same group on two separate occasions. A high correlation between the scores indicates reliability. For instance, a well-designed IQ test should yield similar results for the same individual when taken weeks apart, assuming no significant external changes.
Match List I with List II:
| LIST I | LIST II |
| A. Mean | I. The value repeated maximum number of times in a given series. |
| B. Median | II. The extent of Individual Differences around the Central Tendency. |
| C. Mode | III. Average. |
| D. Variability | IV. The point above and below which lies 50% of the scores. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- 1. (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) → (III), (D) → (IV)
- 2. (A) → (I), (B) → (III), (C) → (II), (D) → (IV)
- 3. (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) → (IV), (D) → (III)
- 4. (A) → (III), (B) → (IV), (C) → (I), (D) → (II)
View Solution
Solution:
- Mean: The arithmetic average of a dataset (A → III).
- Median: The middle value in a sorted dataset, dividing it into two equal halves (B → IV).
- Mode: The most frequently occurring value in the dataset (C → I).
- Variability: Describes how spread out or clustered the data points are around the mean (D → II).
We perceive a person's face as a whole, and not as a collection of eyes, nose, mouth, etc. A face therefore is an example of:
- 1. Schema
- 2. Cognition
- 3. Heuristics
- 4. Gestalt
View Solution
Solution:
- Gestalt psychology emphasizes that the human mind perceives objects as whole structures rather than just the sum of individual parts. For instance, when you look at a face, you see it as a unified entity, not merely as separate eyes, a nose, and a mouth.
- Schema refers to mental frameworks based on prior knowledge.
- Cognition is a broader term for mental processes like thinking and memory.
- Heuristics are mental shortcuts or rules of thumb used for decision-making.
The behavior of avoiding a noxious stimulus by a responder is called:
- 1. Avoidance Learning
- 2. Observational Learning
- 3. Cathartic Learning
- 4. Insight Learning
View Solution
Solution:
- Avoidance learning occurs when a subject learns to perform a specific behavior to prevent an unpleasant or harmful stimulus. For example, a person may learn to leave home earlier to avoid traffic jams (noxious stimulus). This form of learning is a key aspect of operant conditioning, where behaviors are strengthened through negative reinforcement.
- Observational Learning: Learning by watching others (e.g., modeling).
- Cathartic Learning: Not a recognized psychological term.
- Insight Learning: Involves sudden realization or problem-solving ("aha" moments).
The forgetting of new learning due to previously acquired material is called:
- 1. Interference
- 2. Interpolation
- 3. Interlocution
- 4. Interaction
View Solution
Solution:
- Proactive interference occurs when older memories or knowledge interfere with the ability to learn or recall new information. For example, learning a new phone number may be harder if the old one keeps coming to mind. This phenomenon is common in memory research and highlights the competition between old and new information in the brain.
- Interpolation: In mathematics, estimating values between two known points.
- Interlocution: Conversation or dialogue.
- Interaction: The reciprocal influence of factors.
Information organized in Long-Term Memory (LTM) stores is aided by the reminders which direct memory search to appropriate parts of the LTM repository. These are called:
- 1. Retrieval Cues
- 2. Retrieval Errors
- 3. Elaborative Cues
- 4. Subjective Errors
View Solution
Solution:
- Retrieval cues are triggers or hints that help recall information from long-term memory. They can be external (like seeing a photograph) or internal (like an emotional state). For example, smelling a familiar perfume might remind you of a specific event or person. Retrieval is easier when the cues at encoding and recall are similar, known as the principle of encoding specificity.
- Retrieval Errors: Failures to retrieve information.
- Elaborative Cues: Not a recognized term in memory research.
- Subjective Errors: Errors influenced by personal bias or perception.
The cat which meows to a doorbell and not a phone ring is exhibiting the learning phenomenon of:
- 1. Stimulus Latency
- 2. Stimulus Discrimination
- 3. Stimulus Modification
- 4. Stimulus Organisation
View Solution
Solution:
- Stimulus discrimination is the process by which an organism learns to respond to a specific stimulus (e.g., doorbell) while ignoring other similar stimuli (e.g., phone ring). This indicates the ability to differentiate between stimuli based on their distinct characteristics. In this scenario, the cat's meowing behavior is triggered only by the doorbell.
Assigning test conditions to one group of participants while keeping others neutral to test the effect of a variable under study is a practice in research. The group not assigned test conditions is known as:
- 1. Experimental Group
- 2. Measurement Group
- 3. Control Group
- 4. Social Group
View Solution
Solution:
- The control group serves as a baseline in experimental designs and does not receive the experimental treatment. This allows researchers to isolate the effect of the independent variable by comparing the control group with the experimental group. For example, in drug trials, the control group might receive a placebo while the experimental group gets the active drug.
The schedule of reinforcement in which reinforcement occurs only after a fixed number of responses have been emitted is called:
- 1. Fixed Interval Schedule
- 2. Fixed Ratio Schedule
- 3. Variable Interval Schedule
- 4. Variable Ratio Schedule
View Solution
Solution:
- In a fixed ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a set number of responses. For example, an FR-10 schedule means reinforcement is provided after every 10th response. This schedule often results in high response rates but includes a post-reinforcement pause, where the organism briefly stops responding after each reward.
When Libido is attached to or invested in an object, it is known as:
- 1. Catharsis
- 2. Ego Ideal
- 3. Cathexis
- 4. Anxiety
View Solution
Solution:
- Cathexis, in Freudian psychoanalytic theory, refers to the process of investing emotional or psychic energy (libido) into a person, object, or idea. This concept explains emotional attachment or fixation, such as strong feelings toward loved ones or goals.
The school of Psychology which aimed to study the adaptive functions of the mind is called:
- 1. Functionalism
- 2. Structuralism
- 3. Gestaltism
- 4. Behaviorism
View Solution
Solution:
- Functionalism, founded by William James, focuses on the purpose and adaptive functions of mental processes. For example, how memory aids in survival or how attention helps in navigating the environment. It contrasts with structuralism, which analyzes the structure of mental experiences without considering their purpose.
What can be calculated by comparing the performance of those who have obtained very low test scores with those who have obtained very high test scores?
- 1. Discrimination Index
- 2. Difficulty Index
- 3. Item Characteristic Curve
- 4. Item Bias
View Solution
Solution:
- The discrimination index measures how effectively a test item distinguishes between high- and low-performing individuals. A high discrimination index means the item is answered correctly by high performers and incorrectly by low performers, indicating its ability to differentiate abilities.
Excessive competitive drive even when it is unnecessary, is observed in which of the following types of personality?
- 1. Type A
- 2. Type B
- 3. Type C
- 4. Type D
View Solution
Solution:
- Type A personalities are characterized by intense competitiveness, urgency, and a tendency toward hostility and aggression. These individuals often exhibit stress-related behaviors and are more prone to conditions like hypertension and heart disease.
In Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome, the final stage is:
- 1. Recharging
- 2. Coping
- 3. Exhaustion
- 4. Resistance
View Solution
Solution:
- Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) includes three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. Prolonged exposure to stress causes the body to deplete its resources during the exhaustion stage, leading to increased vulnerability to illness and burnout.
Which of the following questions would be of most interest to a cognitive psychologist?
- (A) How does a child acquire the concept of color?
- (B) Are introverted people more likely to be high self-monitors?
- (C) What mechanisms are invoked in hunger?
- (D) How is the unconscious represented in dreams?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- 1. (A) only
- 2. (A) and (C) only
- 3. (C) and (D) only
- 4. (D) only
View Solution
Solution:
- Cognitive psychologists study mental processes such as perception, memory, and problem-solving. The acquisition of the concept of color is directly related to perception and learning, key areas of interest in cognitive psychology.
Your weekly visit to your psychoanalyst begins with instructions to "say whatever comes into your mind." Which technique is being used by the psychoanalyst?
- 1. Free Association
- 2. Introspection
- 3. Behavioral Conditioning
- 4. Trial and Error Learning
View Solution
Solution:
- Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to verbalize thoughts freely, without censorship. This helps uncover repressed memories and unconscious conflicts, central to Freud’s therapeutic method.
Ravi believes that experiences throughout his life continually change his personality. Which theorist would probably not agree with this?
- 1. B.F. Skinner
- 2. Ivan Pavlov
- 3. Sigmund Freud
- 4. John B. Watson
View Solution
Solution:
- Freud’s psychoanalytic theory emphasizes that early childhood experiences play a critical role in personality development. According to Freud, personality is largely fixed by the time early childhood is complete. In contrast, behaviorists like Skinner and Watson, and even Pavlov’s classical conditioning framework, suggest that experiences throughout life can continuously modify behavior and personality.
What kind of psychologist would be most likely to conduct a study of challenges in problem-solving skills with increasing age?
- 1. Developmental
- 2. Community
- 3. Organisational
- 4. Personality
View Solution
Solution:
- Developmental psychology focuses on understanding changes across the lifespan, including cognitive abilities such as problem-solving. This field explores how and why these skills evolve with age and identifies the factors influencing them. Community psychologists study social systems, while organizational psychologists deal with workplace behavior. Personality psychologists focus on individual personality traits rather than age-related changes.
The field of Artificial Intelligence is most closely related to which psychological approach?
- 1. Psychoanalytic
- 2. Behavioral
- 3. Cognitive
- 4. Social
View Solution
Solution:
- Artificial Intelligence (AI) is closely aligned with cognitive psychology, which studies how humans process information, solve problems, and make decisions. AI attempts to replicate these processes through computational models. Psychoanalytic and social approaches are unrelated, while behaviorism focuses on observable actions rather than internal cognitive mechanisms.
Which of the following method relies least on representative sampling?
- 1. Experiment
- 2. Survey
- 3. Case Study
- 4. Longitudinal Study
View Solution
Solution:
- Case studies involve intensive analysis of a single subject or a very small group and do not rely on representative sampling. Surveys, experiments, and longitudinal studies often require broader, representative samples to generalize findings to a larger population.
Imagine you are conducting an experiment to test the effects of video gaming on learning and attention. You select four groups: A, B, C, and D with the following Video Gaming Hours. Which of the following group(s) serve(s) as a Control Group in the experiment?
- (A) Group A: No Video Gaming
- (B) Group B: Video Game for 1 hour
- (C) Group C: Video Game for 3 hours
- (D) Group D: Video Game for 6 hours
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- 1. (B) and (D) only
- 2. (C) only
- 3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
- 4. (A) only
View Solution
Solution:
- The control group is the one not exposed to the independent variable—in this case, video gaming. Group A, with no video gaming, serves as the control, providing a baseline for comparison with experimental groups B, C, and D.
Which type of measures are EEG and GSR?
- 1. Self-Report
- 2. Behavioral
- 3. Physiological
- 4. Projective
View Solution
Solution:
- Electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain electrical activity, and Galvanic Skin Response (GSR) records skin conductance changes due to arousal. Both are physiological measures that monitor direct bodily responses, unlike self-reports or observational methods.
Sensory is to Motor as Receptor is to:
- 1. Axon
- 2. Dendrite
- 3. Effector
- 4. CNS
View Solution
Solution:
- Receptors detect sensory information from the environment, while effectors, such as muscles and glands, carry out motor responses. This relationship mirrors the sensory input-motor output connection in the nervous system.
Which of the following is not a part of the Nervous System?
- 1. Somatic
- 2. Sympathetic
- 3. Symbolic
- 4. Central
View Solution
Solution:
- The nervous system includes the somatic (voluntary control), sympathetic (autonomic), and central (CNS: brain and spinal cord) systems. "Symbolic" is not a recognized part of the nervous system.
You are walking through a forest and a bear jumps out at you. The Nervous System that is immediately called into play is the:
- 1. Glial System
- 2. Parasympathetic System
- 3. Sympathetic System
- 4. Somatic System
View Solution
Solution:
- The sympathetic system triggers the "fight-or-flight" response during emergencies, increasing heart rate, dilating pupils, and redirecting blood flow to muscles. The parasympathetic system does the opposite ("rest-and-digest").
Which of the following parts of a television system is analogous to a dendrite?
- (A) TV Transmitter
- (B) TV Transmitter’s Antennae
- (C) TV Set’s Antennae
- (D) TV Set
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- 1. (A), (B), and (D) only
- 2. (C) only
- 3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
- 4. (D) only
View Solution
Solution:
- Dendrites receive signals from other neurons. In this analogy, the TV Set’s Antennae corresponds to the dendrites because it receives incoming signals. The transmitter and transmitter’s antenna send signals (analogous to axons), while the TV set processes them (similar to the cell body).
An Action Potential is accompanied by:
- (1) Cell’s interior becoming positive
- (2) Cell’s interior becoming negative
- (3) Change from gray matter to white matter
- (4) Change from white matter to gray matter
View Solution
Solution:
- During an action potential (the “firing” of a neuron), there is a rapid influx of sodium ions (Na⁺) causing the inside of the cell membrane to become temporarily positive relative to the outside. This is called depolarization.
Match List I with List II:
| List II (Explanation) | List I (Forms of Validity) |
|---|---|
| I. Pertains to whether the test appears valid to examinees who take it. | D. Face Validity |
| II. A systematic examination of the test to determine whether it covers a representative sample of behaviour. | A. Content Validity |
| III. Validity of a test with another measure mapping the same behaviour. | B. Concurrent Validity |
| IV. Effectiveness of a test in forecasting an individual’s performance. | C. Predictive Validity |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) → (II), (B) → (III), (C) → (IV), (D) → (I)
- (2) (A) → (IV), (B) → (II), (C) → (III), (D) → (I)
- (3) (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) → (IV), (D) → (III)
- (4) (A) → (III), (B) → (IV), (C) → (I), (D) → (II)
View Solution
Solution:
- A. Content Validity → (II) Representative coverage of behaviour domain,
- B. Concurrent Validity → (III) Correlation with another measure of the same behaviour,
- C. Predictive Validity → (IV) Forecasting future performance,
- D. Face Validity → (I) Appears valid to the test-takers.
Which of the following structures is not part of the central core of the human brain?
- (1) Medulla
- (2) Temporal Lobe
- (3) Pons
- (4) Hypothalamus
View Solution
Solution:
- The central core of the brain (also known as the brainstem and associated structures) includes the medulla, pons, midbrain, reticular formation, and parts of the forebrain like the thalamus and hypothalamus. The temporal lobe, however, is a part of the cerebral cortex, which is involved in higher-level cognitive processes and is not considered part of the central core.
The brain’s interpretation of neural impulses from receptors defines:
- (1) Sensation
- (2) Memory
- (3) Perception
- (4) Stimulation
View Solution
Solution:
- Sensation refers to the process of detecting environmental stimuli via sensory organs. Perception, on the other hand, is the brain’s ability to interpret, organize, and make sense of these sensory inputs, turning them into meaningful experiences or awareness.
The minimum amount of light energy that must be present for vision is called:
- (1) Sensory Ratio
- (2) Lumens
- (3) Absolute Threshold
- (4) Critical Ratio
View Solution
Solution:
- The absolute threshold is the lowest intensity of a stimulus (such as light, sound, or touch) that an organism can detect 50% of the time under ideal conditions. In the context of vision, it refers to the dimmest light that can be detected by the human eye.
The reduced sensitivity of sense organs to prolonged stimulation is called sensory:
- (1) Ratio
- (2) Overload
- (3) Deprivation
- (4) Adaptation
View Solution
Solution:
- Sensory adaptation occurs when sensory receptors become less responsive to constant stimuli. For example, when you first enter a brightly lit room, it may seem very bright, but your eyes quickly adjust. This is an example of sensory adaptation.
The part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil is known as:
- (1) Cornea
- (2) Iris
- (3) Retina
- (4) Lens
View Solution
Solution:
- The iris is the pigmented part of the eye responsible for controlling the size of the pupil. By adjusting the pupil size, the iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye, ensuring proper vision in various lighting conditions.
Which of the following describes the path of a neural impulse from the sense organs to the brain?
- (A) Optic Nerve
- (B) Receptor Cells
- (C) Ganglion Cells
- (D) Bipolar Cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
- (2) (A), (B), (D), (C)
- (3) (B), (D), (C), (A)
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
View Solution
Solution:
- The correct sequence in the visual pathway is:
- 1. Light stimulates receptor cells (rods and cones) in the retina.
- 2. These signals are transmitted to bipolar cells.
- 3. Ganglion cells receive the signals and their axons form the optic nerve.
- 4. The optic nerve carries the visual information to the brain.
Perceiving a text as words on a page, rather than as black and white pieces of paper, illustrates which principle of Gestalt?
- (1) Contiguity
- (2) Perceptual Constancy
- (3) Similarity
- (4) Figure and Ground
View Solution
Solution:
- The principle of Figure and Ground in Gestalt psychology explains how we distinguish an object (the figure) from its background (the ground). For example, when reading, the black letters (figure) stand out against the white page (ground), allowing us to perceive meaningful text rather than just shapes and colors.
Which perspective maintains that most human perceptual capabilities are inborn and result very little from learning?
- (1) Nativist
- (2) Interactionist
- (3) Behaviorist
- (4) Empiricist
View Solution
Solution:
- The Nativist perspective argues that perceptual abilities are innate and hard-wired into the brain. For example, the ability to recognize patterns, such as faces, is largely inborn, requiring minimal learning or environmental influence.
The concept of perceptual set comes out of which approach to perceptual processing?
- (1) Data Driven
- (2) Constructivist
- (3) Bottom-Up
- (4) Direct
View Solution
Solution:
- A constructivist (top-down) approach posits that perception is influenced by prior knowledge, experiences, and expectations. The concept of perceptual set aligns with this approach, as it reflects a readiness to perceive information in a particular way based on past experiences or context.
Which of the following is not a depth cue that is potentially available for only one eye?
- (1) Binocular Disparity
- (2) Motion Parallax
- (3) Linear Perspective
- (4) Texture Gradient
View Solution
Solution:
- Binocular disparity is a depth cue that relies on the slightly different images seen by each eye due to their horizontal separation. This cue is unavailable to one eye. In contrast, motion parallax, linear perspective, and texture gradient are monocular depth cues that a single eye can utilize to judge distance.
Which of the following is a true difference between learning and performance?
- (A) Learning is observable; performance is not.
- (B) Learning is permanent as compared to performance.
- (C) Learning can be measured directly; performance must be inferred.
- (D) Learning is easier to change than performance.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) and (D) only
- (2) (B) and (C) only
- (3) (B) only
- (4) (C) only
View Solution
Solution:
- Learning refers to a relatively permanent change in behavior or behavioral potential due to experience. Performance, on the other hand, is the observable expression of what has been learned, which can vary due to factors such as motivation, fatigue, or external conditions.
Raghu was walking along the river when he was bitten by a snake. Now he is afraid not only of snakes, but also of walking near the river. This is an example of:
- (1) Operant Conditioning
- (2) Classical Conditioning
- (3) Systematic Desensitization
- (4) Insight Learning
View Solution
Solution:
- Operant Conditioning and Classical conditioning occurs when an organism learns to associate two stimuli. In this case, the snake bite (unconditioned stimulus) causes fear (unconditioned response). The location near the river becomes a conditioned stimulus that also elicits fear (conditioned response) through association.
During extinction, the __ is consistently omitted and the __ undergoes gradual reduction.
- (1) CS, UCR
- (2) UCS, UCR
- (3) UCS, CR
- (4) CS, CR
View Solution
Solution:
- In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) repeatedly. Over time, the conditioned response (CR) diminishes as the association weakens. For example, if a bell (CS) is rung but no food (UCS) follows, the salivation (CR) decreases.
According to B. F. Skinner, the basic mechanism for controlling human behavior is:
- (1) Punishment
- (2) Generalisation
- (3) Extinction
- (4) Reinforcement
View Solution
Solution:
- B. F. Skinner, a leading figure in behaviorism, introduced operant conditioning, where reinforcement plays a central role in shaping behavior. Reinforcement refers to any event that strengthens or increases the likelihood of a behavior. Positive reinforcement involves adding a rewarding stimulus (e.g., praise, food), while negative reinforcement involves removing an aversive stimulus (e.g., reducing loud noise) to encourage a behavior. Unlike punishment, which aims to reduce behaviors, reinforcement focuses on promoting desirable behaviors by associating them with favorable outcomes.
A basketball player who is ready to shoot a free throw and is not distracted by the sight of the crowd is demonstrating:
- (1) Sensory Overload
- (2) Selective Attention
- (3) Rehearsal
- (4) Relaxation
View Solution
Solution:
- Selective attention refers to the cognitive process of focusing on a specific stimulus or task while ignoring irrelevant or distracting information. In this scenario, the basketball player focuses entirely on shooting the free throw (the basket) and tunes out the crowd's noise and movement. This ability is crucial for performance in high-pressure situations, allowing the player to prioritize task-relevant stimuli and maintain accuracy despite external distractions.
Attention influences memory by:
- (1) Limiting it
- (2) Directing it
- (3) Extinguishing it
- (4) Enhancing it
View Solution
Solution:
- Attention plays a fundamental role in memory formation, particularly during the encoding phase. By focusing cognitive resources on specific information, attention ensures that important details are processed more deeply and effectively. This deep processing increases the likelihood of successful encoding into long-term memory. Without attention, information is less likely to be retained or retrieved later, as the brain cannot allocate sufficient resources to encode it meaningfully.
If you look up the address of a person you have never visited before and three minutes later can no longer remember the address, you should conclude that the information was probably held in:
- (1) Procedural Memory
- (2) Short-Term Memory
- (3) Long-Term Memory
- (4) Schema
View Solution
Solution:
- Short-term memory (STM), also referred to as working memory, is the memory system responsible for temporarily holding and processing information. It has a limited capacity, both in terms of duration (typically 20–30 seconds) and the number of items it can hold (around 7±2 items). If the address is not rehearsed or actively transferred to long-term memory, it is likely to decay rapidly, explaining why you cannot recall it three minutes later.
Match List I with List II:
| List II (Description) | List I (Type of Memory) |
|---|---|
| I. Deepest level of processing (related to meaning) | C. Semantic Memory |
| II. Memory of an event | D. Episodic Memory |
| III. Memory of riding a bicycle | A. Procedural Memory |
| IV. Visual memory for short span of time | B. Sensory Memory |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
- (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
View Solution
Solution:
- Memory systems are categorized based on their function and characteristics:
- Procedural Memory (A) refers to memory for skills and actions, such as riding a bicycle (III).
- Sensory Memory (B) captures immediate, brief sensory information, like visual impressions (IV).
- Semantic Memory (C) involves knowledge of facts and meanings, often requiring deep processing (I).
- Episodic Memory (D) stores personal experiences or specific events, such as recalling a birthday celebration (II).
Parul remembers things from the past very well but cannot incorporate present events into her memory. She is suffering from:
- (1) Retrograde Amnesia
- (2) Proactive Interference
- (3) Retroactive Interference
- (4) Anterograde Amnesia
View Solution
Solution:
- Anterograde amnesia is a condition where an individual loses the ability to create new memories following a traumatic event or brain injury. While past memories remain intact, the encoding and storage of new information in long-term memory are impaired. For instance, a person might remember their childhood vividly but struggle to recall a conversation they had moments ago.
Match List I with List II:
| List II (Key Assumptions) | List I (Theory of Motivation) |
|---|---|
| I. Behavior is “pulled” by expectation of desired outcomes | C. Expectancy Theory |
| II. Biological needs produce unpleasant states of arousal that people seek to reduce | A. Drive Theory |
| III. Setting specific and challenging but attainable aims and objectives | D. Goal Setting Theory |
| IV. General level of activation varies throughout the day, which can motivate many forms of behavior | B. Arousal Theory |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) → (III), (D) → (IV)
- (2) (A) → (I), (B) → (III), (C) → (II), (D) → (IV)
- (3) (A) → (II), (B) → (IV), (C) → (I), (D) → (III)
- (4) (A) → (III), (B) → (IV), (C) → (I), (D) → (II)
View Solution
Solution:
- Each theory of motivation provides unique insights into why individuals behave as they do:
- Drive Theory (A) suggests behavior is motivated by the need to reduce internal tension caused by unmet biological needs, such as hunger or thirst.
- Arousal Theory (B) posits that people are motivated to maintain an optimal level of arousal, which explains behaviors like seeking excitement or relaxation depending on the context.
- Expectancy Theory (C) emphasizes the role of anticipated rewards in driving behavior, with expectations of positive outcomes “pulling” behavior.
- Goal Setting Theory (D) asserts that specific and challenging goals enhance performance by focusing efforts on defined objectives.
Match List I with List II:
| List II (Basic Assumptions) | List I (Theory of Emotion) |
|---|---|
| I. Emotional reactions to a stimulus are followed automatically by an opposite reaction | D. Opponent Process Theory |
| II. Emotional states are determined by the cognitive labels attached to feelings of arousal | C. Schachter-Singer Theory |
| III. Subjective emotional experience results from physiological changes within our body | B. James-Lange Theory |
| IV. Emotion-provoking events induce simultaneous subjective experiences (labeled as emotions) and the physiological experiences that accompany them | A. Cannon-Bard Theory |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) → (III), (D) → (IV)
- (2) (A) → (IV), (B) → (III), (C) → (II), (D) → (I)
- (3) (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) → (IV), (D) → (III)
- (4) (A) → (III), (B) → (IV), (C) → (I), (D) → (II)
View Solution
Solution:
- The theories of emotion differ in how they explain the interplay between physiological changes and emotional experiences:
- Cannon-Bard Theory (A) suggests that physiological arousal and the subjective emotional experience occur simultaneously but independently.
- James-Lange Theory (B) proposes that emotions arise from physiological responses; for instance, “we feel afraid because we tremble.”
- Schachter-Singer Theory (C) combines physiological arousal with cognitive appraisal, asserting that the meaning of arousal depends on context.
- Opponent Process Theory (D) argues that emotional responses are followed by opposing reactions to maintain balance.
Which of the following best describes Erikson’s developmental theory?
- (1) Four Stages of Psychosexual Development
- (2) Eight Stages of Psychosocial Development
- (3) Four Stages of Cognitive Development
- (4) No stages. Development is continuous.
View Solution
Solution:
- Erik Erikson’s theory outlines eight distinct stages of psychosocial development, spanning from infancy to old age. Each stage presents a specific crisis or challenge, such as trust vs. mistrust in infancy or identity vs. role confusion during adolescence. Successful resolution of these crises leads to psychological growth and a stronger sense of self, while failure can result in difficulty navigating future stages.
Harry Harlow’s study on baby monkeys indicates that attachment formation is related to:
- (1) Tactile Sensation
- (2) Nourishment
- (3) Size of the “Mother”
- (4) Direction of Growth
View Solution
Solution:
- Harry Harlow’s groundbreaking experiments revealed that baby monkeys formed stronger attachments to soft, cloth-covered surrogate mothers than to wire mothers that provided food. This demonstrated that contact comfort, or tactile sensation, was more critical for emotional bonding than mere nourishment. The findings highlighted the role of physical warmth and comfort in fostering a sense of security and attachment in infants.
A parent who fails to set firm limits on age-appropriate behavior required for a young child would be using which parenting style?
- (1) Authoritarian
- (2) Authoritative
- (3) Permissive
- (4) Disciplinarian
View Solution
Solution:
- Permissive parenting is characterized by a lack of rules, boundaries, and expectations. Parents who adopt this style tend to be nurturing and accepting but fail to enforce consistent discipline, leading to children who may struggle with self-regulation and authority. While permissive parents often aim to foster independence, the absence of structure can result in behavioral and emotional challenges.
A child whose actions are motivated by an avoidance of punishment shows which level of moral development?
- (1) Preconventional
- (2) Conventional
- (3) Postconventional
- (4) Unconventional
View Solution
Solution:
- According to Kohlberg’s stages of moral development, the preconventional level is the first stage of moral reasoning. At this stage, a child’s decisions are primarily driven by the consequences of their actions, such as avoiding punishment or seeking rewards. This stage reflects a self-centered approach to morality, where external outcomes dictate behavior.
Match List I with List II:
| I. Erikson | B. Psychosocial Theory |
| II. Festinger | D. Cognitive Dissonance Theory |
| III. Freud | A. Psychosexual Perspectives |
| IV. Kohlberg | C. Moral Development Theory |
View Solution
Solution:
- Psychosexual Perspectives (A): Sigmund Freud introduced this theory, emphasizing stages of personality development driven by unconscious desires.
- Psychosocial Theory (B): Erik Erikson outlined eight stages of development, each focusing on a social conflict or task.
- Moral Development Theory (C): Lawrence Kohlberg proposed this framework to describe the progression of ethical reasoning.
- Cognitive Dissonance Theory (D): Leon Festinger developed this theory, highlighting how individuals strive to reduce the discomfort caused by conflicting beliefs or attitudes.
The Cognitive Behavior Therapy proposed by Beck, proposes the following trajectory of illness:
- (A) Illogical ideas e.g., tendency to overgeneralize setbacks
- (D) Negative affect
- (C) Negative behavior in terms of ideas and thoughts
- (B) Depression
View Solution
Solution:
- Illogical Ideas (A): Distorted cognitive patterns, such as overgeneralization or catastrophizing, initiate the cycle of negative thinking.
- Negative Affect (D): These illogical ideas lead to negative emotional states, such as sadness, hopelessness, or anxiety.
- Negative Behavior (C): Emotional disturbances influence behaviors, perpetuating maladaptive actions or withdrawal.
- Depression (B): Over time, these patterns reinforce a depressive state, creating a self-perpetuating loop.
Central Traits, Cardinal Traits, and Secondary Traits were prominent in the trait theory of:
- (1) B. F. Skinner
- (2) Hans Eysenck
- (3) Gordon Allport
- (4) Carl Rogers
View Solution
Solution:
- Gordon Allport’s trait theory: A foundational framework for understanding personality. He categorized traits into three levels:
- Cardinal Traits: Dominant traits that define an individual’s entire personality, often influencing most behaviors (e.g., altruism in Mother Teresa).
- Central Traits: General characteristics that form the basic building blocks of personality (e.g., honesty, sociability).
- Secondary Traits: Traits that are more situational and less consistent, such as preferences or attitudes (e.g., liking a specific type of music).
The descriptive statistics based on test scores of representative groups of individuals is called:
- (1) Z-scores
- (2) Norms
- (3) Reference Statistics
- (4) Standard Scores
View Solution
Solution:
Norms are statistical benchmarks derived from administering a test to a large, representative sample. They allow for the comparison of an individual’s test score to that of the reference group, providing context for interpreting the score.
Which of the following is least likely to be included in a Binet intelligence test?
- (1) Color Discrimination
- (2) Vocabulary Size and Fluency
- (3) Verbal Comprehension
- (4) Recognition and Naming of Familiar Objects
View Solution
Solution:
The Binet intelligence test focuses on assessing cognitive abilities such as verbal reasoning, vocabulary, comprehension, and problem-solving. Tasks like color discrimination, which assess sensory perception, are not central to the test’s primary goal of measuring intellectual capacity.
Unlike the Stanford-Binet, the Wechsler test provides:
- (1) Ratio IQ
- (2) Separate Verbal and Performance Scores
- (3) A single IQ Score
- (4) Cognitive and Affective Scores
View Solution
Solution:
Wechsler’s intelligence tests (e.g., WAIS, WISC) introduced separate scores for verbal and performance tasks. This contrasts with the Stanford-Binet test, which traditionally provided a single IQ score based on a ratio formula.
What do intelligence tests successfully predict?
- (1) Financial Success
- (2) The ability to win Prestigious Scientific Awards
- (3) College Grades
- (4) Happiness
View Solution
Solution:
Intelligence tests are moderately correlated with academic outcomes like college grades. However, their ability to predict broader success measures (e.g., wealth, awards, or happiness) is limited, as these factors often depend on additional variables like motivation, social skills, and life circumstances.
Monica’s therapist asks her to invent a story for each of several pictures hanging on the office wall. The pictures are snapshots of people and have no obvious meaning. This therapist's technique is most similar to that used in:
- (1) Rorschach Inkblot Test
- (2) MMPI
- (3) TAT
- (4) Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
View Solution
Solution:
The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective test that uses ambiguous images of people and scenes to elicit stories from individuals. These narratives reveal underlying motives, emotions, and conflicts by projecting the test-taker’s inner thoughts and feelings.
What is a common symptom of neurosis?
- (1) Loss of contact with reality
- (2) High anxiety
- (3) Immoral behavior
- (4) Hallucinations
View Solution
Solution:
Historically, neurosis referred to mental health conditions characterized by excessive anxiety, phobias, or obsessive-compulsive behaviors without significant distortions in reality perception. Unlike psychosis, which involves symptoms like delusions and hallucinations, neurosis is more closely associated with heightened anxiety and emotional distress.
Which kind of intelligence represents the accumulation of abilities gained through formal and informal instruction?
- (1) Fluid
- (2) Crystallized
- (3) Sensorimotor
- (4) Formal
View Solution
Solution:
Crystallized intelligence, as described in Cattell’s theory, refers to knowledge and skills accumulated through life experiences, education, and cultural exposure. Examples include vocabulary, general knowledge, and problem-solving based on prior learning.
Match List I with List II:
| List II (Basic Nature) | List I (Defense Mechanism) |
|---|---|
| I. Retreating to an earlier period of life | B. Regression |
| II. Forgetting unacceptable thoughts or impulses | A. Repression |
| III. Redirecting an emotional response from a dangerous object to a safer one | D. Displacement |
| IV. Transferring unacceptable motives or impulses to others | C. Projection |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A)→(I), (B)→(II), (C)→(III), (D)→(IV)
- (2) (A)→(I), (B)→(III), (C)→(II), (D)→(IV)
- (3) (A)→(I), (B)→(II), (C)→(IV), (D)→(III)
- (4) (A)→(II), (B)→(I), (C)→(IV), (D)→(III)
View Solution
Solution:
- Repression (A): Blocking or forgetting distressing thoughts to prevent conscious awareness (II).
- Regression (B): Reverting to earlier, more childlike behaviors in response to stress (I).
- Projection (C): Attributing one’s own unacceptable impulses or feelings to someone else (IV).
- Displacement (D): Redirecting emotions from a threatening target to a safer one (III).
The characteristics of a fully functioning person are:
- (A) Aware of all experiences
- (B) Able to face difficulties
- (C) Inhibited and not free to make choices
- (D) Adapt to the changing environmental conditions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
- (2) (A), (B), (C) only
- (3) (A), (B), (D) only
- (4) (C), (B), (D) only
View Solution
Solution:
Carl Rogers defined a fully functioning person as one who is open to experience, self-aware, and able to adapt to changing circumstances. They can face challenges with resilience (B), maintain awareness of their emotions and environment (A), and freely make choices without inhibition (D). Inhibited behavior, as mentioned in (C), does not align with this concept.
Arrange the correct sequence in Simple Random Sampling:
- (A) Select n cases randomly (using fishbowl method or random number table)
- (B) Determine the size of the present population
- (C) Decide on the sample size (n)
- (D) Identify sampling units in the population
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
- (2) (B), (D), (C), (A)
- (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
- (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
View Solution
Solution:
The correct sequence for simple random sampling involves the following steps:
1. Determine Population Size (B): Define the total population under study.
2. Identify Sampling Units (D): Clearly outline and list the population’s units for selection.
3. Decide on Sample Size (C): Specify how many units (n) will be randomly selected.
4. Randomly Select Cases (A): Use randomization methods, like a random number generator, to pick the sample.
Match List I with List II:
| List II (Examples) | List I (Scale of Measurement) |
|---|---|
| I. Division of people on the basis of their Socio-Economic Status | B. Ordinal |
| II. Diagnostic groups of Mental Disorders | A. Nominal |
| III. Measurement of weight | D. Ratio |
| IV. Measurement of temperature on a centigrade scale | C. Interval |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A)→(I), (B)→(II), (C)→(III), (D)→(IV)
- (2) (A)→(II), (B)→(I), (C)→(IV), (D)→(III)
- (3) (A)→(I), (B)→(II), (C)→(IV), (D)→(III)
- (4) (A)→(III), (B)→(IV), (C)→(I), (D)→(II)
View Solution
Solution:
The different scales of measurement are used based on the nature of the data:
- Nominal Scale (A): Used for categories without numerical ranking, such as diagnostic groups of mental disorders (II).
- Ordinal Scale (B): Represents rank ordering, such as socio-economic status levels (I).
- Interval Scale (C): Contains equal intervals between points but lacks a true zero, such as temperature on a centigrade scale (IV).
- Ratio Scale (D): Includes a true zero, allowing for meaningful comparisons like weight measurement (III).
The assumptions of Parametric Statistics are:
- (A) Population should be normally distributed
- (B) Variables should be measured in Interval and/or Ratio Scale
- (C) There should be many outliers
- (D) Data should be based on Probability Sampling
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A), (B), and (D) only
- (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
- (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
- (4) (B), (C), and (D) only
View Solution
Solution:
Parametric statistical tests rely on the following core assumptions:
1. Normal Distribution (A): The population from which samples are drawn should follow a normal distribution.
2. Interval/Ratio Scale (B): The data should be measured on an interval or ratio scale, ensuring numerical comparability.
3. Probability Sampling (D): The data should be randomly sampled to ensure representativeness.
Having many outliers (C) is not an assumption but a violation, as it can distort the results of parametric tests.
Match List I with List II:
| List I (Theory) | List II (Proposed By) |
|---|---|
| D. Cubical Model | I. Guilford |
| A. ‘g’ Factor Theory | II. Spearman |
| B. Hierarchical Theory | III. Vernon |
| C. Multifactor Theory | IV. Thurstone |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) (A)→(I), (B)→(II), (C)→(III), (D)→(IV)
- (2) (A)→(I), (B)→(III), (C)→(II), (D)→(IV)
- (3) (A)→(II), (B)→(III), (C)→(IV), (D)→(I)
- (4) (A)→(III), (B)→(IV), (C)→(I), (D)→(II)
View Solution
Solution:
Theories of intelligence and their proponents:
- ‘g’ Factor Theory (A): Spearman proposed the general intelligence (g) factor, emphasizing a core cognitive ability underlying diverse tasks (II).
- Hierarchical Theory (B): Vernon’s hierarchical model linked general intelligence with specialized abilities (III).
- Multifactor Theory (C): Thurstone identified primary mental abilities, emphasizing independent cognitive domains (IV).
- Cubical Model (D): Guilford’s Structure of Intellect model used a 3D framework to categorize intellectual abilities (I).
A sudden and extreme disturbance of memory in which individuals wander off, adopt a new identity, and are unable to recall their own past is known as:
- (1) Dissociative Amnesia
- (2) Hypochondriasis
- (3) Conversion Disorder
- (4) Dissociative Fugue
View Solution
Solution:
Dissociative Fugue is a rare condition under the umbrella of dissociative disorders. It is characterized by:
- Sudden, unexpected travel or wandering away from one’s home or routine.
- Adoption of a new identity, either partially or fully.
- Inability to recall important personal information, especially about one’s past.
Match List I with List II:
| List I (Erikson's Developmental Task) | List II (Developmental Stage) |
|---|---|
| A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt | II. Toddler |
| B. Initiative vs. Guilt | III. Early Childhood |
| C. Generativity vs. Stagnation | IV. Middle Adulthood |
| D. Ego Integrity vs. Despair | I. Late Adulthood |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
- (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
View Solution
Solution:
Erikson’s psychosocial development stages describe tasks associated with each life stage:
1. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (A): This occurs during the toddler years (II), focusing on independence and self-control.
2. Initiative vs. Guilt (B): Present in early childhood (III), it involves exploring and initiating activities while learning to balance ambition with guilt.
3. Generativity vs. Stagnation (C): During middle adulthood (IV), individuals strive to contribute to society through work, parenting, or mentorship.
4. Ego Integrity vs. Despair (D): Occurs in late adulthood (I), where individuals reflect on their life and seek a sense of fulfillment or risk despair.



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