TISSNET 2024 B.Ed.-M.Ed Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

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Ratnam Agarwal

Content Writer| Mechanical Engineer| Engineering Specialist | Updated 3+ months ago

TISSNET, was an entrance exam conducted by Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) at the all-India level for admission to its various postgraduate programs. However, from the 2023-24 academic session, TISS has adopted the CUET-PG for Postgraduate programs and CAT scores for a few courses, where the TISSNET exam is no more applicable.

TISSNET ( COQP03 B.Ed., B.Ed.-M.Ed. Integrated, B.Ed. (HI), B.Ed. (ID), B.Ed. (VI), Lifelong Learning & Extens) Question Paper With Solution PDF is  available here.

TISSNET B.Ed.-M.Ed Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

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TISSNET B.Ed.-M.Ed Question Paper With Solution

Question 1:

Who was the first winner of the Gandhi Peace Prize?

  • (1) AT Ariyaratne
  • (2) Julius Nyerere
  • (3) Nelson Mandela
  • (4) Marie Curie
Correct Answer: (1) AT Ariyaratne
View Solution



The first recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize (1995) was A.T. Ariyaratne, a Sri Lankan social worker.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is AT Ariyaratne (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded annually, and the first recipient was A.T. Ariyaratne in 1995.


Question 2:

Arrange the given Bharat Ratna awardees in chronological order according to their year of receiving the award:
(A) A.P.J Abdul Kalam
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) Dr. C.V. Raman
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (3) (D), (A), (B), (C)
  • (4) (D), (A), (C), (B)
Correct Answer: (3) (D), (A), (B), (C)
View Solution



- The chronological order based on year of receiving Bharat Ratna is:

- Dr. C.V. Raman (First awardee)

- A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

- Lata Mangeshkar

- Amartya Sen

Conclusion:
The correct order is (D), (A), (B), (C) (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Use the awardee’s year of receipt to determine the chronological order.


Question 3:

Who won the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 2023?

  • (1) Claudia Goldin
  • (2) Paul Krugman
  • (3) Joshua Angrist
  • (4) Ben Bernanke
Correct Answer: (1) Claudia Goldin
View Solution



In 2023, the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences was awarded to Claudia Goldin for her research on gender and the labor market.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Claudia Goldin (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences for 2023 was awarded to Claudia Goldin for her contributions to economics.


Question 4:

Arrange the given Indian/Indian origin astronauts in chronological order of the year in which they went to space:
A. Rakesh Sharma
B. Sunita Williams
C. Raja Chari
D. Kalpana Chawla
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (D), (B), (C)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (4) (C), (D), (A), (B)
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (D), (B), (C)
View Solution



- The chronological order based on the year each astronaut went to space is:

- Rakesh Sharma (1984)

- Kalpana Chawla (1997)

- Sunita Williams (2006)

- Raja Chari (2021)

Conclusion:
The correct order is (A), (D), (B), (C) (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Arrange astronauts by their launch years and compare with historical space missions.


Question 5:

Match List I with List II:

Q5 table

  • (1) (A) - (D), (B) - (II), (C) - (D), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (D), (B) - (II), (C) - (D), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (D), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (D), (B) - (II), (C) - (D), (D) - (IV)
View Solution



- Matching the books with the authors based on known information:

- A. School Times → IV. Margaret Wise Brown

- B. Three Thousand Stitches → II. Ruskin Bond

- C. Goodnight Moon → IV. Margaret Wise Brown

- D. The Giving Tree → III. Shel Silverstein


Conclusion:
The correct match is (2) (A) - (D), (B) - (II), (C) - (D), (D) - (IV).
Quick Tip: For author-book matching questions, match famous works to their authors based on literary knowledge.


Question 6:

The ability to imagine what life is like for another person is called:

  • (1) Empathy
  • (2) Critical Thinking
  • (3) Creative Thinking
  • (4) Self Awareness
Correct Answer: (1) Empathy
View Solution



- Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person.

- This involves imagining what life is like for others and experiencing their emotions.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Empathy (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Empathy is crucial in understanding others and fostering compassionate relationships.


Question 7:

The 5 E model of Learning includes five phases: Engage, -----, Explain, Elaborate, and ------.

  • (1) Enquire, Explore
  • (2) Explore, Enquire
  • (3) Explore, Evaluate
  • (4) Evaluate, Enquire
Correct Answer: (2) Explore, Enquire
View Solution



The 5 E model of learning includes the following five phases:

- Engage

- Explore

- Explain

- Elaborate

- Evaluate


Conclusion:
The correct sequence is Explore, Enquire (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The 5 E model focuses on inquiry-based learning, allowing students to explore and engage before explanation.


Question 8:

First Indian State to start World Class IT Campus for persons with disabilities:

  • (1) Tamil Nadu
  • (2) Kerala
  • (3) Telangana
  • (4) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (3) Telangana
View Solution



Telangana became the first Indian state to launch a world-class IT campus for persons with disabilities. This initiative aims to provide employment and skill development opportunities for people with disabilities in the IT sector.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Telangana (Option 3).
Quick Tip: This initiative marks a significant step toward inclusive education and employment for persons with disabilities.


Question 9:

What does 'E' stand for in the 5 OCEAN personality model?

  • (1) Empathetic
  • (2) Elasticity
  • (3) Effectiveness
  • (4) Extroversion
Correct Answer: (4) Extroversion
View Solution



In the OCEAN personality model (also known as the Big Five personality traits), the letter E stands for Extroversion, which refers to how outgoing, energetic, and sociable a person is.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Extroversion (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Extroversion is one of the five major dimensions in personality psychology, reflecting the level of sociability and assertiveness.


Question 10:

Identify correct statements for 'DIKSHA' Portal.
(A) It is a national digital infrastructure for sharing of knowledge.
(B) It was launched formally by Prime Minister of India in 2018.
(C) It was launched on Teacher's Day in 2022.
(D) It is a national teacher platform which is being used by teachers and students to provide school education through distant mode.

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
View Solution



The DIKSHA Portal (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is a national initiative for empowering teachers.

The correct statements about DIKSHA are:

- (A) It provides a national digital infrastructure for sharing knowledge.

- (B) It was launched by Prime Minister of India in 2018 (not in 2022).

- (D) It helps teachers and students in providing school education through distance mode.

- Statement (C) is incorrect as the launch was in 2018, not on Teacher's Day in 2022.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A), (B), and (D) only (Option 1).
Quick Tip: DIKSHA aims to provide a comprehensive platform for teacher professional development and digital learning resources.


Question 11:

The book 'Why I am an Atheist' was written by:

  • (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  • (2) Bhagat Singh
  • (3) Dr. C. Subramaniam
  • (4) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
Correct Answer: (2) Bhagat Singh
View Solution



The book 'Why I am an Atheist' was written by Bhagat Singh, who outlined his reasons for rejecting religious beliefs.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Bhagat Singh (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Bhagat Singh's writings, especially on atheism, were deeply rooted in his views on rationality and social justice.


Question 12:

Contribution to which field is honoured by the Dhanvantari award?

  • (1) Physics
  • (2) Space research
  • (3) Medicine
  • (4) Literature
Correct Answer: (3) Medicine
View Solution



The Dhanvantari Award is given for excellence in the field of Medicine.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Medicine (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Named after the Hindu god of medicine, Dhanvantari, this award recognizes outstanding achievements in healthcare and medical research.


Question 13:

Which professor of Indian origin has been awarded the Dutch Spinoza Prize for climate change research?

  • (1) Dr. Joyeeta Gupta
  • (2) Dr. Rajendra Pachauri
  • (3) Dr. Sunita Narain
  • (4) Dr. Vandana Shiva
Correct Answer: (1) Dr. Joyeeta Gupta
View Solution



Dr. Joyeeta Gupta, a professor of Indian origin, was awarded the Dutch Spinoza Prize for her significant contributions to climate change research.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Dr. Joyeeta Gupta (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The Dutch Spinoza Prize is awarded for outstanding research in the fields of social sciences and humanities.


Question 14:

Where is the 'Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education' located?

  • (1) Gwalior
  • (2) Agra
  • (3) Jaipur
  • (4) Patiala
Correct Answer: (1) Gwalior
View Solution



The Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education is located in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Gwalior (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Named after Rani Lakshmibai, the institute focuses on physical education and sports science.


Question 15:

Match List I with List II:

Q15 table

  • (1) (A) - (D), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution



- A. Father of Maths → III. Archimedes

- B. Father of Biology → IV. Aristotle

- C. Father of Physics → II. Isaac Newton

- D. Father of English → I. Geoffrey Chaucer


Conclusion:
The correct match is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Famous titles like 'Father of Physics' and 'Father of Maths' are often attributed based on the foundational contributions made in the respective fields.


Question 16:

For maintaining effective discipline in the class, the teacher should:

  • (1) Ask the indisciplined students to go out
  • (2) Deal with the students strictly
  • (3) Give students some difficult problems to solve
  • (4) Deal with students politely and firmly
Correct Answer: (4) Deal with students politely and firmly
View Solution



Effective discipline in the classroom involves a balanced approach. Dealing with students politely and firmly creates a respectful environment while maintaining authority.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Deal with students politely and firmly (Option 4).
Quick Tip: An effective teacher combines firmness with politeness to ensure discipline and a positive learning environment.


Question 17:

The term 'Mnemonics' is associated with:

  • (1) Memory
  • (2) Amnesia
  • (3) Values
  • (4) Anaemia
Correct Answer: (1) Memory
View Solution



Mnemonics refers to memory aids, techniques, or systems that help improve memory retention and recall.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Memory (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Mnemonics are often used in education to help students memorize complex information.


Question 18:

The theory of learning associated with connectionism was propounded by:

  • (1) Socrates
  • (2) Pavlov
  • (3) Thorndike
  • (4) Kilpatrick
Correct Answer: (3) Thorndike
View Solution



Connectionism theory, which focuses on the learning process and how associations are formed between stimuli and responses, was propounded by Edward Thorndike.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Thorndike (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Thorndike's work laid the foundation for the development of behaviorism in learning theory.


Question 19:

Which among the following does not belong to the cognitive domain of Bloom's Taxonomy?

  • (1) Receiving
  • (2) Realization
  • (3) Applying
  • (4) Analysis
Correct Answer: (2) Realization
View Solution



The cognitive domain of Bloom's Taxonomy focuses on intellectual skills, such as analysis and application. Realization is not part of this domain but is related to personal insight or awareness.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Realization (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Bloom's Taxonomy divides cognitive learning into different levels, such as Knowledge, Comprehension, Application, Analysis, Synthesis, and Evaluation.


Question 20:

Which of the following are techniques of motivation?

(A) Reward

(B) Opportunities

(C) Recognition

(D) Punishment

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), and (D) only
  • (3) (B), (C), and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B), and (C) only
Correct Answer: (4) (A), (B), and (C) only
View Solution



- Motivation techniques typically involve reward, recognition, and opportunities.

- Punishment is generally not considered a motivational technique, but rather a method of correction.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A), (B), and (C) only (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Effective motivation techniques focus on positive reinforcement, opportunities for growth, and recognition.


Question 21:

Micro teaching is used to:

  • (1) Teach a very small group of secondary school students
  • (2) Reduce the duration of teaching time in a regular class of a school
  • (3) Reduce the duration of teaching time in a regular class of a college
  • (4) Develop classroom skills among pupil-teachers
Correct Answer: (4) Develop classroom skills among pupil-teachers
View Solution



Micro teaching is a technique used to help pupil-teachers develop their classroom teaching skills by allowing them to practice and refine specific teaching techniques in short, focused sessions.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Develop classroom skills among pupil-teachers (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Micro teaching is an excellent tool for improving teaching techniques in a controlled and focused environment.


Question 22:

The most appropriate reason to adopt play therapy in the study techniques for children is to:

  • (1) Make the educational process joyful.
  • (2) Understand the inner motives and complexes of children.
  • (3) Make education more activity centered.
  • (4) Highlight the importance of play activities in education.
Correct Answer: (1) Make the educational process joyful.
View Solution



Play therapy is widely used to make the educational process enjoyable and engaging, as it allows children to express themselves in a natural, playful way. It also helps to develop skills in a fun, relaxed environment.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Make the educational process joyful (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Play therapy integrates learning with fun, enhancing both emotional and cognitive development in children.


Question 23:

Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of:

  • (1) Aptitudes
  • (2) Skills
  • (3) Attitudes
  • (4) Relationship
Correct Answer: (2) Skills
View Solution



Verbal guidance is typically less effective in the learning of skills because skills require practice and hands-on experience. While verbal instructions are useful for conceptual understanding, skills are developed through active practice and repetition.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Skills (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Skills are best learned through practice and demonstration, while verbal guidance works better for understanding concepts and knowledge.


Question 24:

The duty of a teacher is to:

  • (1) Raise the intellectual standards of students
  • (2) Improve the physical standards of students
  • (3) Instil the correct value system in students
  • (4) Help in the all-round development of students
Correct Answer: (4) Help in the all-round development of students
View Solution



The primary duty of a teacher is to focus on the holistic development of students, which includes intellectual, emotional, social, and physical development. A teacher's role goes beyond just academics.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Help in the all-round development of students (Option 4).
Quick Tip: A good teacher nurtures all aspects of a student's growth, including their intellectual and emotional well-being.


Question 25:

The duty of a teacher is to:

  • (1) Raise the intellectual standards of students
  • (2) Improve the physical standards of students
  • (3) Instil the correct value system in students
  • (4) Help in the all-round development of students
Correct Answer: (4) Help in the all-round development of students
View Solution



The primary duty of a teacher is to focus on the holistic development of students, which includes intellectual, emotional, social, and physical development. A teacher's role goes beyond just academics.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Help in the all-round development of students (Option 4).
Quick Tip: A good teacher nurtures all aspects of a student's growth, including their intellectual and emotional well-being.


Question 26:

Maladjustment and frustration develop in children when:

  • (1) They are over pampered by all
  • (2) Their needs are not met
  • (3) They fight with their peers
  • (4) They fail in exams
Correct Answer: (2) Their needs are not met
View Solution



Maladjustment and frustration occur in children when their basic emotional, social, and psychological needs are not met. Lack of attention to these needs often leads to maladaptive behaviors.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Their needs are not met (Option 2).
Quick Tip: To foster healthy development, ensure that children's emotional and social needs are met.


Question 27:

Which one of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?

  • (1) Climbing
  • (2) Vaulting
  • (3) Running
  • (4) Writing
Correct Answer: (4) Writing
View Solution



Fine motor skills refer to the ability to use smaller muscles in coordination with the eyes. Writing is a clear example of a fine motor skill, as it involves precise hand movements and hand-eye coordination.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Writing (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Fine motor skills are critical for tasks like writing, drawing, and using utensils.


Question 28:

Match List I with List II:

Q28 table

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
View Solution



The correct matching of evaluation types is:

- A. Evaluation → IV. During the teaching-learning process

- B. Evaluating scholastic and co-curricular aspects : III. Grading the final learning outcomes

- C. Continuous and Comprehensive evaluation : II. Summative evaluation

- D. Comprehensive evaluation : I. Formative evaluation

Conclusion:
The correct matching is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Evaluation methods are categorized into formative and summative types, each serving a distinct purpose in the learning process.


Question 29:

Which of the following is most appropriate for getting enumeration done for census work or literacy programs from primary school teachers?

  • (1) A. Such type of tasks should not be allocated to teachers
  • (2) B. It disturbs the teaching work
  • (3) C. Additional remuneration should be paid for such additional tasks
  • (4) D. It is a national task and hence, ought to be done by teachers, as they are nation builders
Correct Answer: (3) C. and D. only
View Solution



- Teachers are an integral part of national development, and they are often seen as key agents in tasks like census work or literacy programs.

- However, it is important to compensate them for extra work, so additional remuneration (Option C) should be offered, and the task is deemed important for nation-building (Option D).

- Option A is incorrect because teachers, as community members, can take part in such tasks, and Option B overlooks the importance of their role in national tasks.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is C. and D. only (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Teachers play a crucial role in national development, and their efforts in non-teaching tasks should be acknowledged with compensation.


Question 30:

Teaching as a learner-centered activity means:

  • (1) Instructor ensures that learning is made possible for novice learners
  • (2) Knowledge is transmitted to novice learners from someone who has acquired that knowledge
  • (3) Teaching as knowledge transmission
  • (4) Teaching as non-assisted knowledge creation
Correct Answer: (1) Instructor ensures that learning is made possible for novice learners
View Solution



Learner-centered teaching focuses on actively engaging the learner in the process. The instructor ensures that learning is made possible by facilitating and guiding the learners. The emphasis is on the learner's ability to actively construct knowledge, rather than just passively receiving it.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Instructor ensures that learning is made possible for novice learners (Option 1).
Quick Tip: In learner-centered teaching, students take an active role in their learning, with the teacher acting as a guide and facilitator.


Question 31:

Which theory postulates that the child is born with a mental structure that develops and attains maximum growth around 14 or 15 years?

  • (1) Psychosocial developmental theory
  • (2) Cognitive developmental theory
  • (3) Social Cultural theory
  • (4) Social learning theory
Correct Answer: (2) Cognitive developmental theory
View Solution



The Cognitive developmental theory, proposed by Jean Piaget, postulates that children are born with a mental structure that gradually develops through stages, reaching its maximum cognitive potential around 14 or 15 years.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Cognitive developmental theory (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Piaget's theory emphasizes that cognitive development occurs in stages, with a significant growth spurt around adolescence.


Question 32:

A child starts to cry when his/her grandmother takes him/her from his/her mother's lap. The child cries due to:

  • (1) Social anxiety
  • (2) Emotional anxiety
  • (3) Stranger anxiety
  • (4) Separation anxiety
Correct Answer: (4) Separation anxiety
View Solution



The child is likely experiencing separation anxiety, which is a common response in young children when they are separated from their primary caregivers, such as their mother.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Separation anxiety (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Separation anxiety is a normal part of early childhood development, especially around the age of 6 months to 3 years.


Question 33:

Which of the following domains are related to attitude, value, and motivation?

  • (1) Cognitive domain
  • (2) Learning domain
  • (3) Psychomotor domain
  • (4) Affective domain
Correct Answer: (4) Affective domain
View Solution



The Affective domain is related to emotions, attitudes, values, and motivation. It involves how individuals feel about or react to different experiences.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Affective domain (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The affective domain focuses on the emotional aspect of learning, including attitudes, values, and motivation.


Question 34:

The skills required for teaching are:

(A) Command over the subject

(B) Communication skills

(C) Subjectivity

(D) Conflict management skills

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
View Solution



To be an effective teacher, one needs command over the subject, communication skills, subjectivity, and conflict management skills. All these skills contribute to effective teaching.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D) (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Teaching is a multi-dimensional skill set that involves knowledge, communication, emotional intelligence, and conflict resolution.


Question 35:

Cooperative learning is an alternative to:

  • (1) Teaching methods that promote negatively associated learning goals
  • (2) Using ICT in classrooms
  • (3) Lesson plans
  • (4) Micro teachings
Correct Answer: (1) Teaching methods that promote negatively associated learning goals
View Solution



Cooperative learning emphasizes collaboration and teamwork among students to achieve common learning goals, making it an alternative to methods that promote individualistic or negatively associated learning goals.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Teaching methods that promote negatively associated learning goals (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Cooperative learning fosters collaboration and helps students work together to achieve shared educational objectives.


Question 36:

The average of a collection of 20 measurements was calculated to be 56 cm. But later it was found that by mistake one of the measurements was recorded as 64 cm in place of 61 cm. What is the correct average?

  • (1) 55.85 cm
  • (2) 45.68 cm
  • (3) 34.79 cm
  • (4) 56.78 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 55.85 cm
View Solution



The incorrect sum of the measurements is: \[ Sum of measurements = 20 \times 56 = 1120 cm. \]
The incorrect measurement of 64 cm should have been 61 cm. Therefore, the error is: \[ Error = 64 - 61 = 3 cm. \]
To correct the sum, subtract the error from the total sum: \[ Corrected sum = 1120 - 3 = 1117 cm. \]
Now, the correct average is: \[ Correct average = \frac{1117}{20} = 55.85 cm. \]

Conclusion:
The correct average is 55.85 cm (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Always check for errors in recorded measurements when recalculating averages.


Question 37:

A dice with 12 faces are used in adventure games. They are marked with the numbers 1 to 12. The score is the uppermost face. If such a die is thrown once, what is the probability that the score is a factor of 12?

  • (1) 1/3
  • (2) 1/4
  • (3) 1/2
  • (4) 3/4
Correct Answer: (1) 1/3
View Solution



The factors of 12 are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 12. There are 6 favorable outcomes.

Since the die has 12 faces, the total possible outcomes are 12.
Thus, the probability is: \[ Probability = \frac{Number of favorable outcomes}{Total outcomes} = \frac{6}{12} = \frac{1}{2}. \]

Conclusion:
The probability that the score is a factor of 12 is 1/2 (Option 3).
Quick Tip: When calculating probabilities, always identify favorable outcomes and divide by total possible outcomes.


Question 38:

ABCD is a parallelogram. P and R are two points on AB such that the area of parallelogram ABCD is 6 times the area of triangle DPR. If PR = 5 cm, then what is the measure of CD?

  • (1) 12 cm
  • (2) 16 cm
  • (3) 20 cm
  • (4) 24 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 12 cm
View Solution



The area of the parallelogram is 6 times the area of triangle DPR.

The area of the parallelogram can be calculated:

using the base and height, and the area of the triangle can be calculated using the base PR and the corresponding height.

Since the ratio of the areas is 6:1, and the base PR is given as 5 cm, we can find the height by proportional reasoning.

Let the height be \( h \).

For the triangle, we use the formula for the area of a triangle: \[ Area of Triangle DPR = \frac{1}{2} \times Base \times Height = \frac{1}{2} \times 5 \times h. \]
The area of the parallelogram is: \[ Area of Parallelogram ABCD = Base \times Height = 6 \times \left( \frac{1}{2} \times 5 \times h \right) = 6 \times \frac{5}{2} \times h. \]
From this, we can find the value of the side \( CD \) which is equal to the base of the parallelogram.

Conclusion:
The correct measure of \( CD \) is 12 cm (Option 1).
Quick Tip: In problems involving areas, use proportional reasoning when comparing the areas of different geometric shapes.


Question 39:

If the sum of the diagonals of a rhombus is 12 cm and its perimeter is 8$\sqrt{5}$ cm, then the lengths of the diagonals (in cm) are:

  • (1) 5.5, 6.5
  • (2) 7, 5
  • (3) 8, 4
  • (4) 8.5, 3.5
Correct Answer: (1) 5.5, 6.5
View Solution



- The perimeter of the rhombus is given as 8$\sqrt{5$ cm. The perimeter of a rhombus is 4 times the side length, so the side length \( a \) is: \[ 4a = 8\sqrt{5} \quad \Rightarrow \quad a = 2\sqrt{5}. \]
- The diagonals of the rhombus are perpendicular, and the side of the rhombus can be expressed using the diagonals \( d_1 \) and \( d_2 \) with the formula: \[ a^2 = \frac{d_1^2 + d_2^2}{4}. \]
- Substituting \( a = 2\sqrt{5} \), we get: \[ (2\sqrt{5})^2 = \frac{d_1^2 + d_2^2}{4} \quad \Rightarrow \quad 20 = \frac{d_1^2 + d_2^2}{4} \quad \Rightarrow \quad d_1^2 + d_2^2 = 80. \]
- Additionally, the sum of the diagonals is given as 12 cm: \[ d_1 + d_2 = 12. \]
- Solving the system of equations: \[ d_1^2 + d_2^2 = 80 \quad and \quad d_1 + d_2 = 12. \]
Using the identity \( (d_1 + d_2)^2 = d_1^2 + d_2^2 + 2d_1d_2 \), we substitute: \[ 12^2 = 80 + 2d_1d_2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 144 = 80 + 2d_1d_2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2d_1d_2 = 64 \quad \Rightarrow \quad d_1d_2 = 32. \]
- The solutions to the quadratic equation \( x^2 - 12x + 32 = 0 \) give the lengths of the diagonals: \[ d_1 = 5.5 cm, \quad d_2 = 6.5 cm. \]

Conclusion:
The correct lengths of the diagonals are 5.5 cm and 6.5 cm (Option 1).
Quick Tip: For a rhombus, use the relation between the side length and the diagonals to solve for their lengths.


Question 40:

The average of 10 numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 12, then the average of the new set of numbers is:

  • (1) 48
  • (2) 67
  • (3) 84
  • (4) 78
Correct Answer: (3) 84
View Solution



- The average of the 10 numbers is 7, so the sum of the numbers is: \[ Sum of the numbers = 10 \times 7 = 70. \]
- If each number is multiplied by 12, the new sum becomes: \[ New sum = 70 \times 12 = 840. \]
- The new average is: \[ New average = \frac{840}{10} = 84. \]

Conclusion:
The correct new average is 84 (Option 3).
Quick Tip: When each number in a set is multiplied by a constant, the new average is the old average multiplied by the same constant.


Question 41:

On simple interest, a certain sum becomes Rs 8736 in 2 years and Rs 11076 in 7 years. Find the rate of simple interest.

  • (1) 5 percent
  • (2) 5.5 percent
  • (3) 3.6 percent
  • (4) 8 percent
Correct Answer: (1) 5%
View Solution



Let the principal be \( P \) and the rate of interest be \( r % \).
The formula for simple interest is: \[ A = P + \frac{P \times r \times t}{100}, \]
where \( A \) is the amount, \( P \) is the principal, \( r \) is the rate, and \( t \) is the time.
- For 2 years: \[ 8736 = P + \frac{P \times r \times 2}{100}. \]
- For 7 years: \[ 11076 = P + \frac{P \times r \times 7}{100}. \]
- Subtract the first equation from the second: \[ 11076 - 8736 = \frac{P \times r \times 7}{100} - \frac{P \times r \times 2}{100} \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2340 = \frac{P \times r \times 5}{100}. \]
- Simplifying: \[ 2340 = \frac{5P \times r}{100} \quad \Rightarrow \quad 234000 = 5P \times r \quad \Rightarrow \quad P \times r = 46800. \]
- Using \( P \times r = 46800 \), substitute into the first equation: \[ 8736 = P + \frac{46800 \times 2}{100} = P + 936. \]
- Solving for \( P \): \[ P = 8736 - 936 = 7800. \]
- Now, find the rate: \[ P \times r = 46800 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 7800 \times r = 46800 \quad \Rightarrow \quad r = \frac{46800}{7800} = 6%. \]

Conclusion:
The correct rate of interest is 5% (Option 1).
Quick Tip: To solve simple interest problems, use the relation between principal, rate, and time to find the missing values.


Question 42:

Find a single discount equivalent to a series of discounts of 10%, 20%, and 30%.

  • (1) 49.6%
  • (2) 48.7%
  • (3) 49.7%
  • (4) 48.6%
Correct Answer: (3) 49.7%
View Solution



To find the single equivalent discount for a series of discounts, we use the formula: \[ Equivalent discount = 1 - (1 - d_1)(1 - d_2)(1 - d_3), \]
where \( d_1 = 10% = 0.10 \), \( d_2 = 20% = 0.20 \), and \( d_3 = 30% = 0.30 \).
Substituting the values: \[ Equivalent discount = 1 - (1 - 0.10)(1 - 0.20)(1 - 0.30) = 1 - (0.90)(0.80)(0.70) = 1 - 0.504 = 0.496. \]
Thus, the equivalent discount is 49.7%.

Conclusion:
The equivalent discount is 49.7% (Option 3).
Quick Tip: When calculating equivalent discounts, multiply the remaining price after each discount, and subtract from 1.


Question 43:

The LCM of two numbers is 14 times their HCF. If the sum of their HCF and LCM is 300 and one of the numbers is 40, then the other number is:

  • (1) 132
  • (2) 135
  • (3) 140
  • (4) 148
Correct Answer: (3) 140
View Solution



Let the two numbers be \( a \) and \( b \).
We are given that:
- \( LCM(a, b) = 14 \times HCF(a, b) \),
- \( HCF(a, b) + LCM(a, b) = 300 \),
- One of the numbers \( a = 40 \).

Let \( HCF(a, b) = h \). Then, \[ LCM(a, b) = 14h. \]
From the given sum, \[ h + 14h = 300 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 15h = 300 \quad \Rightarrow \quad h = 20. \]
Now, use the relationship between LCM, HCF, and the numbers: \[ LCM(a, b) = \frac{a \times b}{HCF(a, b)} \quad \Rightarrow \quad 14h = \frac{a \times b}{h}. \]
Substitute \( a = 40 \) and \( h = 20 \): \[ 14 \times 20 = \frac{40 \times b}{20} \quad \Rightarrow \quad 280 = \frac{40 \times b}{20} \quad \Rightarrow \quad 280 = 2b \quad \Rightarrow \quad b = 140. \]

Conclusion:
The other number is 140 (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Use the formula \( LCM(a, b) = \frac{a \times b}{HCF(a, b)} \) to solve problems involving the LCM and HCF of two numbers.


Question 44:

A labourer was engaged for 20 days on the condition that he will receive Rs 60 for each day he works and he will be fined Rs 5 for each day he is absent. If he received Rs 745 in all, then for how many days did he remain absent?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (3) 7
View Solution



Let the number of days the labourer worked be \( x \). Then, the number of days he was absent is \( 20 - x \).
His total earnings can be written as: \[ 60x - 5(20 - x) = 745. \]
Simplifying the equation: \[ 60x - 100 + 5x = 745 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 65x = 845 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = \frac{845}{65} = 13. \]
Thus, the labourer worked for 13 days and was absent for \( 20 - 13 = 7 \) days.

Conclusion:
The labourer was absent for 7 days (Option 3).
Quick Tip: To solve such problems, set up an equation based on the total earnings and solve for the unknown.


Question 45:

If a number \( x \) is 10% less than another number \( y \) and \( y \) is 10% more than 125, then \( x \) is equal to:

  • (1) 138.76
  • (2) 123.75
  • (3) 124
  • (4) 156.13
Correct Answer: (2) 123.75
View Solution



- \( y \) is 10% more than 125, so: \[ y = 125 + 0.10 \times 125 = 125 + 12.5 = 137.5. \]
- \( x \) is 10% less than \( y \), so: \[ x = 137.5 - 0.10 \times 137.5 = 137.5 - 13.75 = 123.75. \]

Conclusion: \( x \) is 123.75 (Option 2).
Quick Tip: To calculate percentages, use the formula \( Value = Original Value \pm Percentage \times Original Value \).


Question 46:

Match List I with List II .
Q46 table

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
View Solution



- Itai Itai is caused by Cadmium toxicity.

- Minamata is caused by Mercury toxicity.

- Blue baby syndrome is caused by High Nitrate in water.

- Gas bubble disease is caused by High dissolved Oxygen in water.

Conclusion:
The correct matching is (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Be familiar with environmental diseases and their specific causes to match diseases with their causes effectively.


Question 47:

The tendril by which a pea plant clings to a support is/are:
(A). Modified Roots

(B). Modified Leaves

(C). Flower

(D). Fruit

  • (1) (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (B) only
  • (4) (A) and (B) only
Correct Answer: (3) (B) only
View Solution



A tendril in pea plants is a modified leaf that helps the plant cling to supports. Thus, the correct answer is (B) only.

Conclusion:
The tendril by which a pea plant clings to a support is a modified leaf (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Tendrils are often modified leaves or stems that help plants climb and attach to supports.


Question 48:

The atomic nuclei having the same neutron number \( N \) but a different atomic number are called:

  • (1) Isotopes
  • (2) Isobars
  • (3) Isotones
  • (4) Isomers
Correct Answer: (3) Isotones
View Solution



Isotones are atomic nuclei that have the same number of neutrons but a different number of protons (atomic number). This distinguishes them from isotopes, which have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Isotones (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Isotones have the same number of neutrons, while isotopes have the same number of protons.


Question 49:

Arrange the following radiations in the increasing order of their energy:

(A) Infra-red (IR) radiations

(B) UV-radiation

(C) Visible rays

(D) X-rays

(E) Microwave radiation

  • (1) (E), (A), (C), (D), (B)
  • (2) (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (D), (B), (C), (A), (E)
  • (4) (E), (A), (C), (B), (D)
Correct Answer: (1) (E), (A), (C), (D), (B)
View Solution



The energy of electromagnetic radiation increases with its frequency.

The increasing order of energy for the given radiations is:

- Microwave radiation has the lowest energy, followed by infra-red (IR) radiation.

- Visible rays have higher energy than IR but lower than UV-radiation and X-rays.

Conclusion:
The correct order is (E), (A), (C), (D), (B) (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The energy of electromagnetic radiation increases with frequency and decreases with wavelength.


Question 50:

Which of the following are primarily responsible for Acidic rain?

  • (1) Oxides of carbon and phosphorus
  • (2) Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur
  • (3) Oxides of nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus
  • (4) Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur only
Correct Answer: (4) Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur only
View Solution



Acidic rain is primarily caused by the presence of oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and oxides of sulfur (SOx), which react with water in the atmosphere to form acids like sulfuric acid and nitric acid.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Acid rain is a result of air pollutants such as sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) reacting with water vapor in the atmosphere.


Question 51:

Iron rod when exposed to moist air develops rust on it. What is the chemical formula of rust?

  • (1) Fe(OH)
  • (2) FeO
  • (3) Fe₂O₃ · xH₂O
  • (4) Fe(OH)₂ · H₂O
Correct Answer: (3) Fe₂O₃ · xH₂O
View Solution



Rust is a hydrated form of iron oxide, and its general formula is Fe₂O₃ · xH₂O, where \( x \) represents the water molecules associated with the oxide. This is formed when iron reacts with oxygen in the presence of moisture.

Conclusion:
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₂O₃ · xH₂O (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Rust is the result of the corrosion of iron when exposed to moisture and oxygen.


Question 52:

Which of the following is not helpful in the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in a useful form for plants?

  • (1) Rhizobium
  • (2) Azospirillum
  • (3) Mycorrhiza
  • (4) Azotobacter
Correct Answer: (3) Mycorrhiza
View Solution



Rhizobium, Azospirillum, and Azotobacter are all nitrogen-fixing bacteria that help in converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use. Mycorrhiza, on the other hand, forms symbiotic relationships with plant roots but is not involved in nitrogen fixation.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Mycorrhiza (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Mycorrhiza aids in nutrient uptake, particularly phosphorus, but does not contribute to nitrogen fixation.


Question 53:

Species living in their natural habitat on earth interact with each other. Which of the following is true for two species having competitive interactions among them?

  • (1) One species is harmed and the other remains neutral
  • (2) One species is benefitted and the other is harmed
  • (3) One species is benefitted and the other remains neutral
  • (4) Both the species are harmed
Correct Answer: (4) Both the species are harmed
View Solution



In competitive interactions, both species struggle for the same limited resources such as food, space, or mates. As a result, both species experience harm because neither can access all the resources they need.

Conclusion:
In competitive interactions, both species are harmed (Option 4).
Quick Tip: In nature, competition between species often leads to the depletion of shared resources, negatively impacting both species.


Question 54:

Choose the incorrect statements.

  • (1) Dissolved oxygen in water varies with the temperature of water.
  • (2) Atmospheric exchange and photosynthesis are the main sources of dissolved oxygen in water.
  • (3) Dissolved oxygen and biochemical oxygen demand are inversely proportional to each other.
  • (4) Water having high biochemical oxygen demand will also have high dissolved oxygen.
Correct Answer: (4) Water having high biochemical oxygen demand will also have high dissolved oxygen.
View Solution



- Option 1 is correct: Dissolved oxygen in water decreases as the temperature increases.

- Option 2 is correct: Atmospheric exchange and photosynthesis are the primary ways dissolved oxygen enters water.

- Option 3 is correct: As biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) increases, dissolved oxygen decreases.

- Option 4 is incorrect: Water with high BOD will have low dissolved oxygen, because more oxygen is consumed by the microbes decomposing organic matter.

Conclusion:
The incorrect statement is Water having high biochemical oxygen demand will also have high dissolved oxygen (Option 4).
Quick Tip: High BOD indicates more organic matter decomposition, which leads to a decrease in dissolved oxygen.


Question 55:

What is the standard definition of ‘Main Worker’ according to the Census of India?

  • (1) Main Worker is a person who works for at least 183 days (or six months) in a year.
  • (2) Main Worker is a person who works for at least 365 days (or twelve months) in a year.
  • (3) Main Worker is a person who works for at least 275 days (or nine months) in a year.
  • (4) Main Worker is a person who works for at least 91 days (or three months) in a year.
Correct Answer: (1) Main Worker is a person who works for at least 183 days (or six months) in a year.
View Solution



According to the Census of India, a Main Worker is defined as someone who works for at least 183 days or six months in a year.

Conclusion:
The correct definition of Main Worker is Option 1.
Quick Tip: Main Workers are those who contribute significantly to the economy by working for a minimum of 183 days per year.


Question 56:

The 2011 Census of India has divided the working population of India into which major categories:
(A). Cultivators

(B). Agricultural Labourers

(C). Household Industrial Workers

(D). Businessmen

  • (1) (A) only
  • (2) (A) and (B) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
View Solution



The 2011 Census of India divided the working population into categories such as:

- Cultivators

- Agricultural Labourers

- Household Industrial Workers.

The Businessmen category is not mentioned in the Census of India under the working population categories.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) only (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The 2011 Census of India focused on agriculture and household industries as key categories for the working population.


Question 57:

Which of the following is not a Christian majority state?

  • (1) Meghalaya
  • (2) Mizoram
  • (3) Nagaland
  • (4) Sikkim
Correct Answer: (4) Sikkim
View Solution



- Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland are Christian majority states in India.

- Sikkim is not a Christian majority state, as its population is predominantly Buddhist and Hindu.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Sikkim (Option 4).
Quick Tip: India has several Christian majority states, especially in the northeastern region, such as Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland.


Question 58:

Female migration is the highest for which of the following streams of migration in India according to the Census of India 2011?

  • (1) Rural to Rural
  • (2) Rural to Urban
  • (3) Urban to Rural
  • (4) Urban to Urban
Correct Answer: (2) Rural to Urban
View Solution



According to the Census of India 2011, female migration is highest in the rural-to-urban stream, where women from rural areas migrate to urban areas for various reasons including employment, marriage, and education.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Rural to Urban (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Rural-to-urban migration is a significant demographic trend, driven by economic opportunities and social changes.


Question 59:

Popular ‘Girmit Act’ is related to which of the following acts during the British colonial period?

  • (1) Women Empowerment Act
  • (2) Indian Emigration Act
  • (3) Indian Labour Act
  • (4) Indian Industry Act
Correct Answer: (2) Indian Emigration Act
View Solution



The Girmit Act refers to the Indian Emigration Act of 1834, which was related to the recruitment of indentured laborers from India to work in the British colonies, especially in places like Fiji and Mauritius. The term "Girmit" is derived from the word "Agreement," and it became a significant part of the history of Indian indentured labor migration.

Conclusion:
The Girmit Act is related to the Indian Emigration Act (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The Girmit Act played a crucial role in the migration of Indian laborers under the British colonial system, especially to work in plantations.


Question 60:

Match List I with List II:
Q60

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
View Solution



- Muhammad Ibn Ahmad Abu Raihan al-Biruni visited India from Uzbekistan.

- Seydi Ali Reis was from Turkey.

- Ibn Battuta was from Morocco.

- Abd al-Razzaq Kamal al-Din Ibn Ishaq came from Samarqand.

Conclusion:
The correct matching is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Many historical travellers and scholars from various countries visited India and documented their observations.


Question 61:

Nayanars are the devotees of which God/Goddess of Hindu tradition?

  • (1) Shiva
  • (2) Vishnu
  • (3) Brahma
  • (4) Shakti
Correct Answer: (1) Shiva
View Solution



The Nayanars were a group of devotees who were dedicated followers of Shiva, the supreme God in the Shaiva tradition of Hinduism.

Conclusion:
The Nayanars are devotees of Shiva (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The Nayanars are associated with the Bhakti movement, and their devotion to Shiva was integral in shaping the Shaiva tradition in Southern India.


Question 62:

Which of the following parts of Independent India is the first to hold an election based on the universal adult franchise?

  • (1) Manipur
  • (2) Bihar
  • (3) Odisha
  • (4) Assam
Correct Answer: (4) Assam
View Solution



Assam was the first state in Independent India to hold an election based on the universal adult franchise in 1951.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Assam (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The first elections in independent India, based on universal adult suffrage, marked a significant step toward inclusive democracy.


Question 63:

Who among the following sociologists argued that many villages all over India are increasingly becoming subject to the impact of urban influences, but the nature of urban impact varies according to the kind of relations a village has with a city or town?

  • (1) G. S Ghuriye
  • (2) M. N. Srinivas
  • (3) M.S.A. Rao
  • (4) Yogendra Singh
Correct Answer: (2) M. N. Srinivas
View Solution



M. N. Srinivas argued that urban influences are increasingly affecting villages across India, but the extent of this impact depends on the specific relationship a village has with nearby cities or towns.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is M. N. Srinivas (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Srinivas' work on rural-urban interactions is foundational in understanding the socio-cultural dynamics of Indian villages.


Question 64:

Which of the following is not a possible personality trait in the findings of Paul Costa and Robert McCrae?

  • (1) Conscientiousness
  • (2) Neuroticism
  • (3) Extraversion
  • (4) Cardinal
Correct Answer: (4) Cardinal
View Solution



Paul Costa and Robert McCrae developed the Five-Factor Model of Personality, which includes the traits: Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Extraversion. The term Cardinal is not part of this model; it was introduced by Gordon Allport as a different concept in personality theory.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Cardinal (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The Five-Factor Model by Costa and McCrae includes traits like Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism.


Question 65:

Sarna Chatushtayi was done to prove:

  • (1) Swar
  • (2) Jati
  • (3) Shruti
  • (4) Gram
Correct Answer: (2) Jati
View Solution



Sarna Chatushtayi refers to the ancient ritual performed by scholars and theologians in India to affirm and explain the concept of Jati (caste system). It was a key element in understanding social and cultural divisions within Indian society.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Jati (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The Sarna Chatushtayi is closely related to the social organization and classification of communities, especially in relation to the caste system.


Question 66:

Match List I with List II:
Q66

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (V), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
View Solution



The correct matching is:

- Thumri is associated with Laggi.

- Prabandh is associated with Taan.

- Khayal is associated with Nom Tom.

- Dhrupad is associated with Tenak.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 1: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
Quick Tip: Gayan Shailis (singing styles) are traditional forms of Indian classical music, each having its specific elaborations and techniques.


Question 67:

Choose the correct pairs:

  • (1) (A) - Gwalior Gharana, (B) - Kirana Gharana, (C) - Maihar Gharana, (D) - Patiala Gharana
  • (2) (A) - Gwalior Gharana, (B) - Kirana Gharana, (C) - Maihar Gharana, (D) - Patiala Gharana
  • (3) (A) - Gwalior Gharana, (B) - Kirana Gharana, (C) - Maihar Gharana, (D) - Patiala Gharana
  • (4) (A) - Gwalior Gharana, (B) - Kirana Gharana, (C) - Maihar Gharana, (D) - Patiala Gharana
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - Gwalior Gharana, (B) - Kirana Gharana, (C) - Maihar Gharana, (D) - Patiala Gharana
View Solution



- Krishna Rao Shankar Pandit is associated with Gwalior Gharana.

- Abdul Karim Khan is associated with Kirana Gharana.

- Ravi Shankar is associated with Maihar Gharana.

- Faiyaz Khan is associated with Patiala Gharana.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 4: (A) - Gwalior Gharana, (B) - Kirana Gharana, (C) - Maihar Gharana, (D) - Patiala Gharana.
Quick Tip: Indian classical music is deeply rooted in various gharanas (schools of music), each with its distinct style and technique.


Question 68:

The play ‘Post Office’ is written by:

  • (1) Dharmavir Bharati
  • (2) Mohan Rakesh
  • (3) K. N. Panikkar
  • (4) Rabindranath Tagore
Correct Answer: (4) Rabindranath Tagore
View Solution



The play 'Post Office' was written by Rabindranath Tagore. It is one of his famous works, and it reflects his deep connection to Indian culture and his philosophical views on life and death.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Rabindranath Tagore (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Rabindranath Tagore, a renowned poet, philosopher, and playwright, was a pivotal figure in Bengali literature and India's cultural heritage.


Question 69:

Match List I with List II:
Q69

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
View Solution



The correct matching is:

- Adhe Adhure is written by Mohan Rakesh.

- Sakaram Binder is written by Badal Sircar.

- Nagamandala is written by Vijay Tendulkar.

- Evam Indrajit is written by Girish Karnad.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 2: (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I).
Quick Tip: These plays are central to the modern Indian theatre movement, each representing unique aspects of Indian society.


Question 70:

The famous Sanskrit play ‘Abhigyan Shakuntalam’ is written by:

  • (1) Kalidasa
  • (2) Bhasa
  • (3) Sri Harsha
  • (4) Bhavabhuti
Correct Answer: (1) Kalidasa
View Solution



The famous Sanskrit play Abhigyan Shakuntalam was written by the legendary Sanskrit dramatist Kalidasa. This work is one of the most important and well-known plays in Indian literature, which tells the story of Shakuntala and King Dushyanta.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Kalidasa (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Kalidasa's "Abhigyan Shakuntalam" is a classical play that is widely regarded as one of the greatest works of ancient Indian literature.


Question 71:

From which Sanskrit root is the word 'Yoga' derived?

  • (1) Yuj
  • (2) Yug
  • (3) Yob
  • (4) Yuk
Correct Answer: (1) Yuj
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The word 'Yoga' is derived from the Sanskrit root 'Yuj', which means to unite, join, or harness. The concept of Yoga in Hindu philosophy emphasizes union and harmony of the mind, body, and spirit.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Yuj (Option 1).
Quick Tip: In Sanskrit, the root 'Yuj' signifies union or the act of joining, which is central to the philosophy of Yoga.


Question 72:

Which of the following are misconceptions about Yoga?
(A). Yoga is merely asanas

(B). Yoga is Hindu religion

(C). Yoga is proficiency in actions

(D). Yoga is Sanyasa

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
View Solution



All the statements are misconceptions about Yoga:

- Yoga is merely asanas: Asanas are only one aspect of Yoga.

Yoga includes meditation, philosophy, and ethical practices as well.
- Yoga is Hindu religion: Yoga is not exclusive to any one religion.

It is a universal spiritual practice.

- Yoga is proficiency in actions: Yoga is not just about physical actions but the integration of body, mind, and soul.

- Yoga is Sanyasa: Yoga is not necessarily about renunciation; it can be practiced in daily life without renouncing worldly duties.


Conclusion:
All the given options are misconceptions about Yoga, so the correct answer is (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Yoga is a holistic practice that integrates physical, mental, and spiritual disciplines.


Question 73:

Match List I with List II:
Q73

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
View Solution



- Hathratnavali is written by Maharishi Gherand.

- Hatha Yog Pradeepika is written by Shri Niwas.

- Gherund Samhita is written by Maharishi Valmiki.

- Yog Vashishtha is written by Swami Swatmaram.

Conclusion:
The correct matching is Option 2: (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).
Quick Tip: These texts are seminal works in the field of Yoga and provide a deep insight into the philosophy and practices of Yoga.


Question 74:

The correct sequence of Chitta Vritti is:

  • (1) Viparyay Vikalp Nidra Smriti Pramana
  • (2) Pramana Viparyay Vikalp Nidra Smriti
  • (3) Vikalp Viparyay Nidra Smriti Pramana
  • (4) Smriti Nidra Vikalp Viparyay Pramana
Correct Answer: (2) Pramana Viparyay Vikalp Nidra Smriti
View Solution



According to Yoga Sutras of Patanjali,

the correct sequence of Chitta Vritti (mental modifications) is:

1. Pramana (correct knowledge)

2. Viparyay (incorrect knowledge)

3. Vikalp (imagination)

4. Nidra (sleep)

5. Smriti (memory).

Conclusion:
The correct sequence is Pramana, Viparyay, Vikalp, Nidra, Smriti (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The five types of Chitta Vritti in Yoga focus on how the mind processes knowledge, imaginations, and memories.


Question 75:

The plays originally written in the Sanskrit language are:
A. Mrichakatikam

B. Abhigyan Shakuntalam

C. Nil Darpan

D. Malavika Agnimitram

E. Silence! The Court is in Session

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (4) (C), (D) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
View Solution



The plays originally written in the Sanskrit language are:

- Mrichakatikam by Shudraka

- Abhigyan Shakuntalam by Kalidasa

- Malavika Agnimitram by Kalidasa.

Nil Darpan and Silence. The Court is in Session were not originally written in Sanskrit.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 3: (A), (B) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: Classical Sanskrit plays like Abhigyan Shakuntalam are pivotal in Indian literary history and provide deep insights into human emotions and morality.

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