KLEE 2026 LLB 5 Year Question Paper is available for download here. CEE Kerala conducted KLEE 2026 exam for 5 Year LLB on 28 June in single shift from 10 AM to 12 PM. KLEE 2026 LLB 5 Year Question Paper consists of 120 questions for 360 marks to be attempted in 2 hours.
- KLEE LLB 5 Year Question Paper is divided into 4 sections- General English (36 questions), General Knowledge (27 questions), Arithmetic and Mental Ability (15 questions) and Aptitude for Legal Studies (42 questions).
- Each question carries 3 marks and there is negative marking of 1 mark for incorrect answers.
Candidates can download KLEE 2026 LLB 5 Year Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.
KLEE 2026 LLB 5 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF
Question 1:
Which one of the following is an incorrectly spelled word?
- (A) revarberation
- (B) juxtaposition
- (C) opaque
- (D) appeasement
Question 2:
Which one of the following is an incorrectly spelled word?
- (A) assassination
- (B) multidisciplinery
- (C) linguistic
- (D) refurbished
Question 3:
Find out the correct preposition to be used in the blanks. He is capable ________ solving the complicated issue.
- (A) in
- (B) with
- (C) to
- (D) of
Question 4:
Choose the correct preposition to be used in the blanks. She is responsible ________ the economic development of the company.
- (A) to
- (B) for
- (C) with
- (D) of
Question 5:
Choose the correct preposition from the following to be used in the blanks. He is married _______ an advocate.
- (A) of
- (B) with
- (C) to
- (D) against
Question 6:
Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals? MEEK
- (A) forbearing
- (B) humble
- (C) mild
- (D) impatient
Question 7:
Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals? UNDETERRED
- (A) daunted
- (B) bold
- (C) apprehensive
- (D) gallant
Question 8:
Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals? HOMOLOGOUS
- (A) distinct
- (B) parallel
- (C) same
- (D) similar
Question 9:
Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals? STARK
- (A) bleak
- (B) hostile
- (C) austere
- (D) subtle
Question 10:
Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in italics in the sentence: The plot of land costs an arm and a leg
- (A) moderate
- (B) very expensive
- (C) cheap
- (D) for sale
Question 11:
He spilled the beans about his new car. The meaning of the idiom, `` spill the beans '' is
- (A) to cook the beans
- (B) to cut the beans
- (C) to reveal a secret
- (D) to speak truth
Question 12:
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrases given in capitals in the sentence: The University administration CUT CORNERS on safety, which caused many problems
- (A) to do something in an efficient way
- (B) to do something in the cheapest or quickest way by ignoring proper standards
- (C) to do something secretly
- (D) to do something extravagantly
Question 13:
Choose the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The policy changes were introduced in an _________ manner, without proper planning
- (A) agreeable
- (B) acceptable
- (C) arbitrary
- (D) admissible
Question 14:
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The respondent’s reply during the cross examination in the court was ________ by contradictions
- (A) eliminated
- (B) confused
- (C) validated
- (D) undermined
Question 15:
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Her claim was so _________ that it required no further evidence
- (A) doubtful
- (B) ambiguous
- (C) self-evident
- (D) equivocal
Question 16:
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The growth of the organization was _______ by poor management decisions
- (A) hindered
- (B) increased
- (C) accelerated
- (D) facilitated
Question 17:
Find out all the nouns in the following sentence. His involvement in music earned him good recognition across the State.
- (A) involvement, music, recognition, earned
- (B) involvement, music, recognition, across
- (C) earned, music, recognition, across
- (D) involvement, music, recognition, State
Question 18:
Find out all the nouns in the following sentence. The rapid expansion of technology has transformed modern medical treatments.
- (A) expansion, technology, treatments
- (B) expansion, technology, medical, treatments
- (C) rapid, expansion, technology, medical
- (D) expansion, transformed, technology
Question 19:
Find out all the verb in the following sentence. The Government has been reviewing the project for several years
- (A) has
- (B) project
- (C) several
- (D) has been reviewing
Question 20:
Find out all the verb in the following sentence. The results of Assembly election were analysed carefully by the political parties.
- (A) were
- (B) results
- (C) were analysed
- (D) carefully
Question 21:
Change the assertive sentence into an interrogative sentence. He rarely speaks in English to his friends.
- (A) Is he rarely speaks in English to his friend?
- (B) Does he rarely speaks in English to his friend?
- (C) Do he rarely speaks in English to his friend?
- (D) Does he rarely speak in English to his friend?
Question 22:
Change the assertive sentence into an interrogative sentence. Everyone welcomed his dance performance.
- (A) Did everyone welcomed his dance performance?
- (B) Does everyone welcome his dance performance?
- (C) Has everyone welcomed his dance performance?
- (D) Did everyone welcome his dance performance?
Question 23:
Choose the suitable adjective to fill in the blanks in the sentence. His ________ attitude made it difficult for his friends to trust him.
- (A) adjustable
- (B) erratic
- (C) acceptable
- (D) amicable
Question 24:
Choose the suitable adjective to fill in the blanks in the sentence. The senior counsel presented a ________ argument that convinced the judge.
- (A) evasive
- (B) weak
- (C) compelling
- (D) flimsy
Question 25:
A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If there is no error in the sentence , choose the option (D).
- (A) They had prepared meticulously
- (B) for the project, but unforeseen
- (C) technical issues disrupted them plan
- (D) No error
Question 26:
A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If there is no error in the sentence, choose the option (D).
- (A) She neither apologized for
- (B) her mistake, nor does she
- (C) attempt to rectify it
- (D) No error
Question 27:
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: PERNICIOUS
- (A) injurious
- (B) graceful
- (C) useful
- (D) delightful
Question 28:
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: OBSEQUIOUS
- (A) bold
- (B) argue
- (C) fight
- (D) submissive
Question 29:
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: PRAGMATIC
- (A) optimistic
- (B) static
- (C) practical
- (D) forgive
Question 30:
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: CANDID
- (A) honest
- (B) tight
- (C) happy
- (D) strict
Question 31:
Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P : them and confused
Q : were detailed, yet
R : the instructions
S : some participants misunderstood
- (A) QRPS
- (B) PQSR
- (C) RQSP
- (D) SQRP
Question 32:
Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P : to understand the truth
Q : the boy was trying
R : old man had said
S : of what the
- (A) QPSR
- (B) RQPS
- (C) SQRP
- (D) RPQS
Question 33:
Choose the correct conjunction to fill in the blanks in the following sentence. He can stay here, _______ he can go home
- (A) but
- (B) and
- (C) or
- (D) yet
Question 34:
Choose the correct conjunction to fill in the blanks in the following sentence. She not only studies well ________ plays tennis excellently.
- (A) does
- (B) or
- (C) and
- (D) but also
Question 35:
Read the passage and answer the question:
Plastic is a notorious material. Of the more than 400 million tonnes of plastic produced globally each year, only about 9% is recycled, while millions of tonnes end up in the oceans annually. Plastic can take hundreds of years to break down, fragmenting instead into microplastics that have now been detected in the air, drinking water, and even the human body. Produced largely from fossil fuels, it is estimated to account for around 3% to 4% of global greenhouse gas emissions. Greenhouse gases are components of the atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour being durable, cheap and endlessly versatile, however, plastic has woven itself into nearly every aspect of modern life. Longevity changes the environmental equation. And recycling, while necessary, cannot be the primary solution to a crisis driven by the sheer scale of production and design of single-use plastic.
According to the passage, choose the statement which is not correct.
- (A) Each year, about 400 million tonnes of plastic is produced globally.
- (B) Each year, about 80% of plastics is not recycled.
- (C) Plastic can take hundreds of years to break down.
- (D) Recycling of plastic is necessary
Question 36:
``I _____ English for the last five years''
- (A) learn
- (B) have been learning
- (C) learnt
- (D) am learning
Question 37:
Kerala is set to celebrate the 75th anniversary of the formation of the state in the year
- (A) 2029
- (B) 2028
- (C) 2031
- (D) 2035
Question 38:
Kerala Piravi Day is celebrated every year on
- (A) 1st November
- (B) 5th November
- (C) 10th November
- (D) 25th November
Question 39:
In Kerala, Nirbhaya Nisha is a programme that provides special security for
- (A) senior citizen travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
- (B) women travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
- (C) children travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
- (D) disabled persons travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
Question 40:
The “ Sanchaya ” software in Kerala is related to
- (A) tax and revenue management in local bodies
- (B) Forests management
- (C) Health Services
- (D) management of water bodies
Question 41:
G.V. Raja Award is the highest sporting honour in the State of
- (A) Karnataka
- (B) Telangana
- (C) Kerala
- (D) Tamil Nadu
Question 42:
The world’s second largest steel producer is
- (A) Japan
- (B) China
- (C) India
- (D) Germany
Question 43:
The third closest planet to the sun and fifth largest planet is
- (A) the Earth
- (B) Mars
- (C) Jupiter
- (D) Venus
Question 44:
The lithosphere is
- (A) the larger waterbodies on the earth.
- (B) the rigid, outermost shell of the earth, composed of the crust and the brittle upper mantle
- (C) the gaseous envelope that surrounds the earth
- (D) the sphere where life exists
Question 45:
The continent bordered on the north by the Arctic ocean and on the east by the North Atlantic Ocean and on the south by Pacific ocean, is
- (A) South America
- (B) North America
- (C) Europe
- (D) Australia
Question 46:
The Sabarmati River runs through the center of _______, the Gujarat City,
- (A) Jamnagar
- (B) Surat
- (C) Ahmedabad
- (D) Amreli
Question 47:
Myopia is a disease related to _______.
- (A) Ears
- (B) Lungs
- (C) Skin
- (D) Eyes
Question 48:
In human, tear gas causes immediate_______.
- (A) eye burning
- (B) cold
- (C) fever
- (D) fainting
Question 49:
Radar is a system that uses radio waves to determine the distance, direction and radial velocity of objects relative to the site. Radar stands for
- (A) radio displays and range
- (B) radio rays and range
- (C) radio distance and range
- (D) radio detection and ranging
Question 50:
The National Research Institute for Panchakarma is situated at
- (A) Thrissur
- (B) Thiruvananthapuram
- (C) Kottayam
- (D) Calicut
Question 51:
Fluid Control Research Institute is a national centre, registered under the Societies Act and it comes under the
- (A) Ministries of Earth Science, Government of India
- (B) Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers, Government of India
- (C) Ministries of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India
- (D) Ministries of Heavy Industries, Government of India
Question 52:
The Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India, is
- (A) Shri Jitan Ram Manjhi
- (B) Shri. Arjun Ram Meghwal
- (C) Shri. Jayant Chaudhary
- (D) Dr.Jitendra Singh
Question 53:
Deficiency of Vitamin E causes
- (A) throat infection
- (B) blindness
- (C) peptic ulcer
- (D) neurological damage and muscle weakness
Question 54:
About 68% of the cargo handled at Cochin Port is
- (A) timber
- (B) fertilizer
- (C) crude and POL
- (D) coal
Question 55:
THUNA is the citizen service portal of
- (A) Forest Department, Government of Kerala
- (B) Kerala Police, simplifies public access to police services
- (C) Revenue Department, Government of Kerala
- (D) Transport Department, Government of Kerala
Question 56:
The Kuttanad region in Kerala is famous for its vast,
- (A) rubber plantation
- (B) below sea-level tea plantation
- (C) below sea-level paddy cultivation
- (D) below sea-level coffee plantation
Question 57:
The first Malayalam journal published in Kerala , is
- (A) Rajyasamacharam
- (B) Malayala Manorama
- (C) Mathrubhumi
- (D) Patriotic
Question 58:
In Kerala, the slogan “ One caste, one religion, one God for mankind ” is mainly related to
- (A) Vakkom Moulavi
- (B) Ayyankali
- (C) Thycaud Ayya
- (D) Sri Narayana Guru
Question 59:
The festival Thrissur Pooram is celebrated in Kerala in honour of
- (A) Goddess Saraswathi
- (B) Goddess Lakshmi
- (C) Goddess Durga
- (D) Goddess Valli
Question 60:
Kerala Kalamandalam is famous for nurturing and preserving
- (A) architecture
- (B) Kerala’s traditional performing arts
- (C) music
- (D) literature
Question 61:
Which one is the first fully solar powered airport in the world?
- (A) Cochin International Airport, India
- (B) Vienna Airport, Austria
- (C) Changi Airport, Singapore
- (D) Denver International airport, USA.
Question 62:
Author of the classic novel Chemmeen, is
- (A) M.Mukundan
- (B) Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
- (C) O.V.Vijayan
- (D) K.R.Meera
Question 63:
The winner of the player of the tournament award in T20 World Cup(Men) 2026, is
- (A) Mitchell Marsh
- (B) Jasprit Bumrah
- (C) Sanju Samson
- (D) Sam Curren
Question 64:
If a given number is increased by 25% , the number becomes 320. The given number is
- (A) 286
- (B) 264
- (C) 276
- (D) 256
Question 65:
If an item is sold for Rs.540 at a loss of 10%, then the cost price of the item is
- (A) Rs.630.
- (B) Rs.610.
- (C) Rs.600.
- (D) Rs.620.
Question 66:
A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete the same work in 45 days . Together, they can complete the same work in
- (A) 12.25 days
- (B) 11.5 days
- (C) 12.5 days
- (D) 11.25 days
Question 67:
The arithmetic mean of 10 numbers is 65. If one number is removed and 25 is included in the list. The new arithmetic mean is 60. The removed number is
- (A) 75
- (B) 65
- (C) 60
- (D) 80
Question 68:
The area of a square shaped plot is 3600 sq.ft. If the lengths of all the sides of the plot are doubled, then the area of the plot is
- (A) 14600 sq.ft
- (B) 14800 sq.ft
- (C) 12200 sq.ft
- (D) 14400 sq.ft
Question 69:
A sum of rupees fetches simple interest Rs.2400 for 2 years. If the rate of interest is 12%, then the principal amount is
- (A) Rs.12000
- (B) Rs.10000.
- (C) Rs.8000
- (D) Rs.10200
Question 70:
A has deposited some amount in a bank. The bank gives 10% compound interest. If he receives Rs.24200 at the end of two years, the amount deposited initially in the bank is
- (A) Rs.21000
- (B) Rs.20000
- (C) Rs.22000
- (D) Rs.22200
Question 71:
The ratio of four numbers is 3 : 4 : 5 : 6 and the sum of the four numbers is 7200. The largest of the four numbers, is
- (A) 2800
- (B) 2600
- (C) 3200
- (D) 2400
Question 72:
Choose the prime number from 175, 161, 129, 101
- (A) 161
- (B) 101
- (C) 175
- (D) 129
Question 73:
If a : b = 4 : 5, b : c = 5 : 4 and c : d = 6 : 5, then a : b : c : d =
- (A) 12 : 16 : 12 : 10
- (B) 10 : 15 : 10 : 12
- (C) 12 : 15 : 12 : 10
- (D) 12 : 15 : 10 : 12
Question 74:
If WUXWK corresponds to TRUTH , then FIGHT corresponds to
- (A) CFDEQ
- (B) FCDQE
- (C) CFDQE
- (D) CDFEQ
Question 75:
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. Bird : Wings :: Fish : ?
- (A) Scales
- (B) Tail
- (C) Fins
- (D) Gills
Question 76:
If 2 + 4 = 20 and 3 + 5 = 34, then 6 + 9 =
- (A) 121
- (B) 118
- (C) 108
- (D) 117
Question 77:
A is B’s sister. C is B’s father. D is C’s mother. How is D related to A ?
- (A) Uncle
- (B) Sister
- (C) Grandfather
- (D) Grandmother
Question 78:
The next alphabet in the sequence D, G, K, P, ?
Question 79:
Literally “ Ultra vires ” means beyond powers and it refers to
- (A) actions that are endorsed by the legal authority
- (B) actions lacking legal authority
- (C) actions taken by the government
- (D) actions taken by a corporate company
Question 80:
Which one of the following does not come under immovable property?
- (A) Factories
- (B) Houses
- (C) Growing Crops
- (D) Commercial Buildings
Question 81:
FERA stands for
- (A) Foreign Exchange Reservation Act
- (B) Foreign Embassy Regulation Act
- (C) Foreign Exchange Rules and Act
- (D) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
Question 82:
NHRC stands for
- (A) National Human Rights Committee
- (B) National Human Rights Commission
- (C) National Human Rights and Liabilities Commission
- (D) National Human Rights and Duties Commission
Question 83:
Plaint legally refers to a statement of
- (A) claims in which the plaintiff sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars
- (B) claims in which a witness sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars
- (C) claims in which the advocate sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars
- (D) claims in which the authority sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars
Question 84:
The Family Courts are constituted
- (A) by the respective State Governments
- (B) under the Family Courts Act 1984
- (C) by the Supreme Court
- (D) by the respective High Courts
Question 85:
The legal disputes between the Union of India and the States or States inter se are to be heard
- (A) in any court in India
- (B) both by the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts
- (C) only by the High Courts
- (D) only in the Supreme Court of India
Question 86:
Legally, Alien is a person who is
- (A) not an Indian citizen but lives in India
- (B) an Indian citizen but lives in abroad
- (C) a foreigner visiting India on tourist visa
- (D) an Indian visiting foreign countries very often
Question 87:
The original Constitution of India, which came into force on 26 January 1950, had
- (A) 495 Articles
- (B) 395 Articles
- (C) 595 Articles
- (D) 695 Articles
Question 88:
The legal term Bequeath means
- (A) to sell a property to someone through auction
- (B) to give property to someone at concessional rate through will.
- (C) to give property to someone through will after death
- (D) to sell a property to someone.
Question 89:
In legal terminology, a dependent is a person who relies on another for
- (A) financial support and maintenance
- (B) moral support
- (C) getting loan
- (D) getting tax relief
Question 90:
The writ of mandamus is issued by a Court
- (A) to command a public authority to perform a legal duty
- (B) to arrest a person immediately
- (C) to produce a detained person before the court
- (D) to set aside the judgment of a lower court
Question 91:
The main purpose of the Delimitation Bill is
- (A) to increase the number of Supreme Court judges
- (B) to increase the number of High Court judges
- (C) to amend taxation laws
- (D) to redraw the boundaries of electoral constituencies
Question 92:
The Indian Constitution provides the procedure and power of Parliament to amend the constitution in
- (A) Article 168
- (B) Article 268
- (C) Article 368
- (D) Article 208
Question 93:
The Indian Constitution establishes in India a Parliamentary type of Government on the
- (A) British Model
- (B) US Model
- (C) Russian Model
- (D) German Model
Question 94:
In India, the Head of the State is
- (A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
- (B) the Prime Minister of India
- (C) the President of India
- (D) the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Question 95:
The President of India can be removed from the office by
- (A) an order of a High Court
- (B) vote of no confidence
- (C) impeachment
- (D) An order of the Supreme Court of India
Question 96:
During the election to a State Assembly in India, the Model Code of Conduct is
- (A) a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India
- (B) a set of guidelines issued by the Governor of the State
- (C) a set of guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India
- (D) a set of guidelines issued by the President of India
Question 97:
Which one of the following is not true in respect of Election Commission of India?
- (A) It can cancel elections in case of malpractice
- (B) Its decisions cannot be challenged in Courts
- (C) It allots election symbols
- (D) It prepares electoral rolls
Question 98:
The term Libel, legally means
- (A) a method of defamation expressed in writing
- (B) spoken defamation
- (C) an assault
- (D) threat
Question 99:
FIR stands for
- (A) First Introduction Report
- (B) First Investigation Register
- (C) First Investigation Report
- (D) First Information Report
Question 100:
In the case of Cognizable offence,
- (A) police require permission from the Court to arrest
- (B) police can arrest without warrant
- (C) it is a negligible offence
- (D) police cannot take action as the offence is committed by a minor
Question 101:
In a civil case, the burden of proof usually lies on
- (A) the judge
- (B) the plaintiff
- (C) the witness
- (D) the advocate appearing for the defendant
Question 102:
Legally an affidavit is
- (A) a written statement made on oath, sworn before an authorized officer and submitted in the court
- (B) an oral statement made on oath in the court
- (C) a judgement delivered by a judge
- (D) a record maintained in the court
Question 103:
Legally liability means
- (A) a right of the defendants
- (B) wrong doing by a group of people
- (C) a crime to be investigated by a special team of police officers
- (D) a legal responsibility or obligation imposed by law.
Question 104:
A minor enters into a contract. It is
- (A) void ab initio
- (B) valid automatically when the minor becomes major
- (C) partially valid when the minor becomes major
- (D) valid after the demise of minor
Question 105:
The Chief Justice of the Kerala High Court is appointed by
- (A) Chief Justice of India
- (B) Chief Minister of Kerala
- (C) President of India
- (D) Governor of Kerala
Question 106:
A judge of the High Court holds office until the age of
- (A) 65 years
- (B) 62 years
- (C) 60 years
- (D) 58 years
Question 107:
A person X threatens another person Y to publish defamatory statements in a newspaper unless Y pays money. This amounts to
- (A) undue influence
- (B) coercion
- (C) fraud
- (D) unlawful detention
Question 108:
In tort laws, the term Battery means
- (A) intentional physical contact without consent
- (B) verbal abuse
- (C) damaging another property
- (D) forceful detention of a minor
Question 109:
The term of office of the Judges of the International Court of Justice is
- (A) 9 years
- (B) 6 years
- (C) 10 years
- (D) 5 years
Question 110:
A invites B to a family function at his residence. B accepts but does not attend. Legally A can
- (A) sue for breach of trust
- (B) sue for damage
- (C) do nothing legally
- (D) give a complaint to the Police
Question 111:
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
1. The International Court of Justice can hear disputes only between States
2. Individuals have no local standi before the International Court of Justice
- (A) Only the statement (1) is true
- (B) Only the statement (2) is true
- (C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
- (D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false
Question 112:
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
1. Election Commission of India is a constitutional body
2. Election Commission of India conducts elections to Corporations
- (A) Only the statement (1) is true
- (B) Only the statement (2) is true
- (C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
- (D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false
Question 113:
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements.
Statements :
1. Indian Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution
2. One-third of Indian Rajya Sabha Members retire every two years
- (A) Only the statement (1) is true
- (B) Only the statement (2) is true
- (C) Both the statements (1) and (2) are true
- (D) Both the statements (1) and (2) are false
Question 114:
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
1. The Supreme Court of India is the final interpreter of the constitution
2. The decision of the Supreme Court can be overlooked by the President of India
- (A) Only the statement (1) is true
- (B) Only the statement (2) is true
- (C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
- (D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false
Question 115:
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
1. The Supreme Court can review its own judgements
2. Public Interest Litigation can be filed directly in the Supreme Court
- (A) Only (1) is true
- (B) Only (2) is true
- (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
- (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Question 116:
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
1. A High Court Judge can be removed only by the President of India on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity
2. The removal of a High Court Judge does not require a special majority in Parliament.
- (A) Only the statement (1) is true
- (B) Only the statement (2) is true
- (C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
- (D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false
Question 117:
The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is changed into
- (A) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Services, 2023
- (B) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
- (C) Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
- (D) Bharatiya Nagarik Subha Sanhita, 2023
Question 118:
Which one of the following replaced the Indian Evidence Act,1872?
- (A) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
- (B) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
- (C) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
- (D) Transfer of Property Act
Question 119:
The maxim “ Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea ” means
- (A) The act alone makes a person guilty
- (B) Motive is more important than act
- (C) The act makes a person guilty even the mind is not guilty
- (D) The act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty
Question 120:
A person X finds lost goods and keeps them in his possession. He is legally known as
- (A) trustee
- (B) guardian
- (C) owner
- (D) bailee
KLEE 2026 Exam Pattern
| Particulars |
Details |
| Exam Name |
Kerala Law Entrance Examination (KLEE) 2026 |
| Conducting Body |
Commissioner for Entrance Examinations (CEE), Kerala |
| Exam Mode |
Computer-Based Test (CBT) |
| Duration |
120 minutes (2 hours) |
| Total Questions |
120 |
| Total Marks |
360 |
| Negative Marking |
Yes (−1 mark per wrong answer) |
| Medium of Exam |
English |
| Number of Sections |
4 |
KLEE 2026 Revision
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