NIFT 2024 B.Des 5 Feb Shift 1 Question Paper (Available)- Download Answer Key with Solutions PDF

The correct option is (1), as it directly aligns with the passage, which talks about eateries preparing for the World Cup final by anticipating a surge in business and crowded venues. The other options do not directly address the primary focus of the passage, which is about eateries preparing for increased demand due to the World Cup final.

Option (2) is about a restaurant fielding calls for tickets, which is not the focus in the passage.
Option (3) talks about a promotional offer on tickets, which is not mentioned.
Option (4) focuses on a cinema chain, which is not the central theme in the passage.


Conclusion:

Option (1) is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the information presented in the passage.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to details in the passage to ensure accurate interpretation of the options.

The phrase "Pulling out all the stops" means to make every effort or to do something to the fullest extent, which is equivalent to the expression "no holds barred."

The other options do not convey this meaning and are unrelated to the context.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2) as it accurately reflects the meaning of the idiom.
Quick Tip: Idiomatic phrases often have a specific meaning that is different from the literal interpretation.

The word "footfall" refers to the sound made by someone's footsteps as they walk.

The other options do not relate to the concept of walking or sound produced by steps.

Conclusion:
The correct word is "footfall," which accurately represents the sound of footsteps.
Quick Tip: In English, words with similar meanings can have very different connotations, so it's important to choose the most precise word.

The word "savour" means to enjoy or relish something, typically in a pleasurable way.

The other options do not carry this meaning.

Conclusion:
The correct word is "savour," which directly means to enjoy something fully.
Quick Tip: In context, "savour" is often used to describe enjoying food or experiences with deep appreciation.

Mascarpone, ganache, and cocoa are all ingredients related to food or desserts. A "sponsor" is unrelated and refers to a business or entity providing support, not a food item.

Thus, option (2) is the odd one out.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is "sponsor" as it does not belong with the other food-related terms.
Quick Tip: When identifying the odd one out, focus on common characteristics shared by the majority of the options.

The correct answers are options (1) and (2), as both accurately describe why Assam is regarded as the gateway to the north-eastern states:

Option (1) highlights Assam's central location in North-East India, which makes it a natural entry point to the region.
Option (2) explains that Assam's western border connects directly with West Bengal, making it a crucial link for access to the northeastern states.

Options (3) and (4) refer to other historical or unique characteristics of Assam but do not explain why it is considered the gateway.

Conclusion:

The correct answers are options (1) and (2), as they both reflect Assam's geographical significance as the gateway to the northeastern states.
Quick Tip: When describing geographical locations, consider the role of centrality in facilitating access to surrounding areas.

The name "Kamarupa" for Assam is attested in historical records such as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription.

The other options refer to different historical or cultural aspects, but the specific mention of Kamarupa comes from the inscription.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, which provides historical evidence of Assam being referred to as Kamarupa.
Quick Tip: Historical inscriptions are valuable sources for understanding the ancient names and history of regions.

The present name "Assam" is attributed to the Ahom dynasty, who ruled the region and played a significant role in its cultural and political history.

The other options refer to different historical influences but are not directly responsible for the present name of Assam.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), the Ahoms, who are credited with giving Assam its current name.
Quick Tip: Historical dynasties often influence the naming of regions, shaping their identity and legacy.

The word "Asoma" in Sanskrit means "peerless" or "unequalled," referring to something that has no match or is unique.

The other options do not carry this meaning.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), Asoma, which means "peerless" in Sanskrit.
Quick Tip: In Sanskrit, many words have specific meanings that can reflect qualities such as excellence or uniqueness.

The Treaty of Yandaboo, signed in 1826, marked the end of the First Anglo-Burmese War and resulted in the British taking control of Assam from the Burmese.

The other options either misstate the parties involved or the events that followed the treaty.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), as the British took over Assam from the Burmese through the Treaty of Yandaboo.
Quick Tip: Treaties between colonial powers and local rulers often resulted in the redrawing of territorial boundaries and power shifts.

A "tributary" is a stream or river that flows into a larger river or lake, which matches the definition given in the question.

The other options do not match the definition provided.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), "tributary," as it fits the description of a stream that flows into a larger body of water.
Quick Tip: In geography, a "tributary" is a smaller stream or river that feeds into a larger one.

Entomology is the scientific study of insects and worms, which fits the description provided.

The other options refer to the study of different fields: taxidermy (preserving animals), ornithology (study of birds), and paleontology (study of fossils).

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "entomology," as it specifically refers to the study of insects and worms.
Quick Tip: Entomology is the branch of zoology that focuses on the study of insects.

The correct word is "Pandemonium," which refers to wild uproar or chaos.

The other options are misspellings of the correct word.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "Pandemonium," which means a state of chaos or disorder.
Quick Tip: "Pandemonium" is a term used to describe a situation of extreme chaos or noise.

"Panache" refers to style or flair, which fits the context of the sentence.

The other options are incorrect spellings or do not fit the meaning.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "Panache," which refers to a distinctive and stylish flair.
Quick Tip: "Panache" is used to describe someone's distinctive and stylish manner.

The correct word is "for" because it refers to the duration of the action (how long the misinformation has been circulating).

"Since" is used when referring to a specific point in time, not duration.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "for," to describe the duration of the misinformation.
Quick Tip: Use "for" to express the duration of an ongoing action or state.

The correct word is "should," as it expresses a recommendation or polite suggestion.

The other options do not fit the meaning of the sentence.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "should," which is used to make a polite suggestion or recommendation.
Quick Tip: "Should" is used for suggestions, advice, or expectations in English.

The correct option is "Need" because the sentence is a question asking about the necessity or requirement of Mr. Verma waiting any longer. In this context, "Need" is used as a modal verb for expressing necessity or obligation. The sentence structure follows a more formal and direct questioning style often used when implying a need.


Thus, the sentence would be: "Need Mr. Verma wait any longer?" which is grammatically correct in a formal or structured context.


Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), "Need," as it correctly conveys the sense of necessity in the present tense and forms the question in the appropriate structure.
Quick Tip: In English, the verb "need" can be used in a question form when expressing necessity or obligation, especially in more formal contexts.

The correct phrase is "of insulting me" because the phrase "with a view to" is typically followed by the preposition "of" when referring to a particular action. In this case, "of insulting me" correctly links the idea of coming with the intention or view to insult.

The other options do not fit grammatically or semantically in this context.


Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "of insulting me," as it correctly expresses the purpose and structure of the sentence.
Quick Tip: In English, "with a view to" is used to express intention or purpose, and when followed by a gerund, the appropriate preposition is typically "of."

The correct spelling is "RESCISSION," which refers to the act of revoking or canceling something.

The other options are incorrect spellings.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), "RESCISSION," as it is the correct spelling of the word.
Quick Tip: In English, always double-check the spelling of words related to legal or formal contexts, as they often have specific spellings.

The correct spelling is "MONUMENTALLY," which means in a monumental manner.

The other options contain misspellings of the word.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), "MONUMENTALLY," as it is the correct spelling.
Quick Tip: When unsure about a word's spelling, consult a dictionary to avoid common errors, especially with complex words.

The correct spelling is "MONSTROSITY," which refers to something monstrous or outrageous.

The other options contain incorrect spellings.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "MONSTROSITY."
Quick Tip: Always check spelling carefully, especially for words with similar sounding parts.

The correct spelling is "CONSPICUOUS," meaning noticeable or easily seen.

The other options are incorrect spellings.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), "CONSPICUOUS."
Quick Tip: Check for the "u" in "conspicuous," as it is often misspelled.

The correct conversion of direct speech to indirect speech uses the past tense ("was ruined") and the reporting verb "exclaimed sadly."

The other options either use incorrect tenses or verbs.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), as it properly reflects the change to indirect speech.
Quick Tip: In indirect speech, the present tense is often converted to past tense.

In direct speech, when converting from indirect speech, we maintain the exclamation and use the appropriate present tense for something that is still true. Since the scene is being described as lovely at the moment of exclamation, the present tense "is" is used instead of the past tense "was."

The correct form is, therefore, "He said, 'How lovely the scene is!'"

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), reflecting the proper conversion from indirect to direct speech, using the present tense for an immediate statement or exclamation.
Quick Tip: When converting indirect speech into direct speech for present situations, maintain the present tense for exclamatory statements.

The correct way to convert indirect speech to direct speech in this case is to use "said to" when indicating who the speech was directed to, along with the appropriate question format. In direct speech, we keep the auxiliary verb "can" before the subject "you" and the punctuation (question mark) is placed at the end.

Other options do not follow the correct word order or punctuation for direct speech.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), "Anjana said to Nitin, 'Can you solve this sum?'" as it properly follows the rules for converting indirect speech into direct speech for a question.
Quick Tip: In direct speech, when converting from indirect speech for a question, use the correct auxiliary verb and word order. Don't forget the punctuation!

In passive voice, the structure of the sentence changes, and the correct form is "must not be touched."

The other options do not form a proper passive construction.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), "This switch must not be touched," as it maintains the passive voice structure.
Quick Tip: In passive voice, focus on the action being done to the subject, with the appropriate auxiliary verbs.

In passive voice, the object of the sentence becomes the subject. The correct form is "The field was prepared by the farmer."

The other options either use incorrect verb forms or agreement.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "The field was prepared by the farmer," as it follows proper passive voice structure.
Quick Tip: In passive voice, the verb tense remains the same as the active voice, but the subject and object are switched.

The correct passive construction is "The landscape is dotted by tiny houses," as it describes an ongoing state in the present tense.

The other options are either incorrect in tense or use the wrong auxiliary verbs.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), "The landscape is dotted by tiny houses."
Quick Tip: In passive voice, ensure that the verb agrees in tense with the original sentence.

The idiom "part and parcel" means an essential or integral part of something. In the context of this sentence, it suggests that poverty is an inherent or unavoidable aspect of the crimes being discussed. It emphasizes how poverty is closely linked to or is a significant part of the crimes.


The other idioms do not fit as well in this context:

"Rank and file" refers to the ordinary members of an organization.

"Pins and needles" refers to a tingling sensation or anxious feeling.

"Root and branch" means something that is done thoroughly or completely, but doesn't convey the same meaning as "part and parcel" in this context.


Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), "part and parcel," as it accurately conveys that poverty is an inherent part of all the crimes being referred to.
Quick Tip: "Part and parcel" refers to something that is an essential or integral part of a larger whole.

The idiom "sum and substance" refers to the most important or essential part, fitting the context of a precis.

The other idioms do not match the intended meaning.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), "sum and substance."
Quick Tip: "Sum and substance" refers to the core or essential part of something.

The idiom "weal and woe" refers to both the good and bad times, typically used to express unconditional support or companionship in all situations.

The other idioms do not fit the context of supporting someone in both happy and difficult circumstances.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "weal and woe," as it fits the meaning of enduring both good and bad times together.
Quick Tip: "Weal and woe" is commonly used to express unconditional support through both positive and negative experiences.

"Profane" refers to language or actions that are disrespectful, especially towards sacred things. The opposite of "profane" is "sacred," which refers to something holy or revered.

The other options do not serve as proper opposites to "profane."

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), "sacred," as it is the opposite of "profane."
Quick Tip: "Profane" is often used to describe something disrespectful or irreverent, while "sacred" represents something holy or revered.

"Eulogised" means to praise highly, and the opposite of this is "disparaged," which means to speak about someone or something in a negative way.

The other options mean to praise, which are synonyms of "eulogised."

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), "disparaged," as it is the opposite of "eulogised."
Quick Tip: "Disparage" is the opposite of "eulogise," as it involves speaking negatively rather than praising.

"Parsimonious" means being extremely frugal or unwilling to spend money. The opposite of this would be "extravagant," meaning to spend excessively or wastefully.

The other options do not accurately contrast with "parsimonious."

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (1), "extravagant," as it is the opposite of "parsimonious."
Quick Tip: "Extravagant" refers to excessive spending, which is the opposite of "parsimonious," which implies stinginess.

"Teetotal" means abstaining completely from alcohol, which is similar in meaning to "absolute," referring to total or complete.

The other options do not relate to the meaning of "teetotal."

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "absolute," as it conveys a sense of totality or completeness, much like "teetotal."
Quick Tip: "Teetotal" refers to complete abstinence from alcohol, much like the word "absolute" suggests totality.

"Speck" refers to a small spot or dot, which is similar in meaning to "macula," a term for a small spot or area, especially in medical terminology.

The other options do not have a similar meaning.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "macula," as it refers to a small spot, similar to "speck."
Quick Tip: "Speck" refers to something tiny, similar in meaning to "macula," often used to describe small marks.

"Colossal" means extremely large or enormous, making "enormous" the most appropriate synonym.

The other options do not convey the meaning of something being very large.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), "enormous," as it is the closest synonym for "colossal."
Quick Tip: "Colossal" describes something exceptionally large or massive, which is synonymous with "enormous."

A "curator" is the person responsible for managing and overseeing the collections in a museum.

The other options do not specifically refer to a museum manager.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "curator," as it is the correct term for a person in charge of a museum.
Quick Tip: A "curator" is the professional responsible for the care, display, and management of collections in a museum.

"Grotesque" refers to something very ugly or distorted in a strange or unnatural way, which fits the description in the question.

The other options do not convey the same meaning.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (3), "grotesque," as it best describes something strangely ugly and often frightening.
Quick Tip: "Grotesque" refers to something bizarrely ugly or distorted, often creating a sense of discomfort.

"Delinquency" refers to criminal or immoral behavior, especially among young people.

The other options do not fit the context of youth-related crimes.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2), "delinquency," as it specifically refers to crime committed by young people.
Quick Tip: "Delinquency" often refers to criminal or anti-social behavior by young individuals.

Let the cost price (C.P.) of one chair be: \[ C.P. of one chair = \frac{37,500}{25} = 1,500 \]
Let the selling price of one chair be \( x \).
The total selling price for 25 chairs will be: \[ Total Selling Price = 25x \]
The profit on the sale of all chairs is equal to the selling price of 5 chairs, i.e., \( 5x \).
Profit is given by: \[ Profit = Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price = 25x - 37,500 \]
Since the profit is equal to the selling price of 5 chairs: \[ 25x - 37,500 = 5x \]
Simplifying: \[ 20x = 37,500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = \frac{37,500}{20} = 1,875 \]

Conclusion:
The selling price of one chair is Rs 1,875. Quick Tip: Profit is the difference between selling price and cost price. In this case, the total profit is the selling price of 5 chairs.

Given:
Simple Interest (S.I.) for 2 years = Rs. 720.
Simple Interest (S.I.) for 7 years = Rs. 1020.

We need to find the principal.
\[ S.I. for 5 years = S.I. for 7 years - S.I. for 2 years \] \[ S.I. for 5 years = 1020 - 720 = 300 \, Rs. \]

Now, we calculate the S.I. for 1 year: \[ S.I. for 2 years = \frac{300}{5} \times 2 = 120 \, Rs. \]

Next, we calculate the principal: \[ Principal = S.I. for 2 years - 120 = 720 - 120 = 600 \, Rs. \]


Conclusion:
The borrowed sum is Rs 600. Quick Tip: In simple interest problems, use the formula \( A = P(1 + \frac{rt}{100}) \) and manipulate it to find the principal amount.

Given: \[ 20% of A = 15% of B = \frac{1}{4} C \]
This translates to the following equations: \[ \frac{20}{100} A = \frac{15}{100} B = \frac{1}{4} C \]
Simplifying the percentages: \[ \frac{1}{5} A = \frac{3}{20} B = \frac{1}{4} C \]
From the first two terms: \[ \frac{1}{5} A = \frac{3}{20} B \quad \Rightarrow \quad 20A = 15B \quad \Rightarrow \quad A = \frac{3}{4} B \]
Now using the third term: \[ \frac{1}{5} A = \frac{1}{4} C \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4A = 5C \quad \Rightarrow \quad A = \frac{5}{4} C \]
Substitute \( A = \frac{3}{4} B \) into \( A = \frac{5}{4} C \): \[ \frac{3}{4} B = \frac{5}{4} C \quad \Rightarrow \quad 3B = 5C \quad \Rightarrow \quad B = \frac{5}{3} C \]
Thus, \[ A : B : C = 15 : 20 : 12 \]

Conclusion:
The ratio A : B : C is 15 : 20 : 12. Quick Tip: For ratio problems, equate the given terms and solve the system of equations to find the required ratio.

Let's add the numbers step by step: \[ 7.038 + 27.3 = 34.338 \] \[ 34.338 + 1.0079 = 35.3459 \] \[ 35.3459 + 3.035 = 38.3809 \] \[ 38.3809 + 0.8 = 39.1809 \] \[ 39.1809 + 14 = 53.1809 \]

Conclusion:
The sum of the numbers is 53.1809. Quick Tip: When adding decimals, align the decimal points for accurate addition.

The numbers between 8 and 33 divisible by 5 are: \[ 10, 15, 20, 25, 30 \]
To find the average, we use the formula: \[ Average = \frac{Sum of the numbers}{Number of terms} \]
Sum of the numbers: \[ 10 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 30 = 100 \]
Number of terms: \[ 5 \]
Therefore, the average is: \[ \frac{100}{5} = 20 \]

Conclusion:
The average of these numbers is 20. Quick Tip: To find the average, sum the numbers and divide by the total count of numbers.

Let the total number of voters be \( x \).
The number of voters who voted for candidate A is: \[ 0.30x \]
The remaining voters are: \[ x - 0.30x = 0.70x \]
The number of voters who voted for candidate B is: \[ 0.60 \times 0.70x = 0.42x \]
The number of voters who did not cast their vote is: \[ x - 0.30x - 0.42x = 0.28x \]
According to the problem, the difference between those who voted for candidate A and those who did not cast their vote is 2500: \[ 0.30x - 0.28x = 2500 \] \[ 0.02x = 2500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = \frac{2500}{0.02} = 125000 \]

Conclusion:
The total number of voters is 125000. Quick Tip: In election problems, break down the percentage values step by step to determine the required totals.

To solve the problem, let's denote the three numbers as \( A \), \( B \), and \( C \) with the given ratios:
\[ A : B : C = \frac{3}{4} : \frac{5}{6} : \frac{1}{2} \]

First, we find a common denominator to simplify the ratios. The least common multiple of 4, 6, and 2 is 12. We multiply each ratio by 12 to eliminate the fractions:
\[ A = \frac{3}{4} \times 12 = 9 \] \[ B = \frac{5}{6} \times 12 = 10 \] \[ C = \frac{1}{2} \times 12 = 6 \]

Now, the numbers are in the ratio \( 9 : 10 : 6 \). The greatest number is 10, and the smallest number is 6. The difference between the greatest and smallest numbers is:
\[ 10 - 6 = 4 \]

However, the problem states that this difference is 12. To adjust for this, we introduce a scaling factor \( k \):
\[ 10k - 6k = 12 \implies 4k = 12 \implies k = 3 \]

Now, we find the actual values of the numbers:
\[ A = 9k = 27 \] \[ B = 10k = 30 \] \[ C = 6k = 18 \]

The greatest number is 30, and the smallest number is 18. The difference between their squares is:
\[ 30^2 - 18^2 = 900 - 324 = 576 \]

Therefore, the difference between the squares of the largest and smallest numbers is:
\[ \boxed{576} \]

Conclusion:
The difference between the squares of the largest and smallest numbers is 576. Quick Tip: To find the difference of squares, use the formula \( (a^2 - b^2) = (a - b)(a + b) \).

Let the number be \( x \).
We are given that 68% of the number is more than its 52% by 64: \[ 0.68x - 0.52x = 64 \] \[ 0.16x = 64 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = \frac{64}{0.16} = 400 \]

Now, we need to find 75% of this number: \[ 0.75 \times 400 = 300 \]

Conclusion:
75% of the number is 300. Quick Tip: To find percentages of a number, multiply the number by the percentage in decimal form.

Let the total marks of the 10 students be: \[ Total Marks of 10 students = 10 \times 22 = 220 \]
Let the total marks of the remaining 30 students be: \[ Total Marks of 30 students = 30 \times 62 = 1860 \]

The total marks for all 40 students is: \[ 220 + 1860 = 2080 \]

The average marks scored by all the students is: \[ \frac{2080}{40} = 52 \]

Conclusion:
The average marks scored by all the students is 52. Quick Tip: To find the average of all the numbers, divide the total sum by the total count of items.

Let the volume of each cup be \( V \).
The amount of milk in the first cup is \( \frac{2}{3}V \), and the amount of water added is \( V - \frac{2}{3}V = \frac{1}{3}V \).
The amount of milk in the second cup is \( \frac{4}{5}V \), and the amount of water added is \( V - \frac{4}{5}V = \frac{1}{5}V \).

When the two mixtures are combined, the total amount of milk is: \[ \frac{2}{3}V + \frac{4}{5}V = \frac{10}{15}V + \frac{12}{15}V = \frac{22}{15}V \]
The total amount of water is: \[ \frac{1}{3}V + \frac{1}{5}V = \frac{5}{15}V + \frac{3}{15}V = \frac{8}{15}V \]

The ratio of water to milk is: \[ \frac{\frac{8}{15}V}{\frac{22}{15}V} = \frac{8}{22} = \frac{4}{11} \]

Conclusion:
The ratio of water to milk is 4:11. Quick Tip: When combining mixtures, add the amounts of the same substance (milk or water) from each mixture and find the ratio.

Let the total profit be \( P \).
5% of the total profit goes to charity, so the remaining profit is \( 0.95P \).

Since A and B invested in the ratio 3:2, B's share in the remaining profit is: \[ \frac{2}{5} \times 0.95P = 1425 \]
Solving for \( P \): \[ \frac{2}{5} \times 0.95P = 1425 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 0.38P = 1425 \quad \Rightarrow \quad P = \frac{1425}{0.38} = 3750 \]

Conclusion:
The total profit is Rs 3750. Quick Tip: When dealing with profit-sharing, first subtract any charity portion and then calculate the share for each investor based on their contribution ratio.

Let the cost price (C.P.) of one shirt be Rs 200.
The retailer earned a profit of 35% on the cost price: \[ Profit = \frac{35}{100} \times 200 = 70 \]
Thus, the selling price (S.P.) is: \[ S.P. = 200 + 70 = 270 \]
The marked price (M.P.) is Rs 300, and the discount allowed is: \[ Discount = 300 - 270 = 30 \]
The percentage of discount is: \[ \frac{30}{300} \times 100 = 10% \]

Conclusion:
The percentage of discount is 10%. Quick Tip: To calculate the discount percentage, divide the discount by the marked price and multiply by 100.

We are given the equation: \[ 0.50(x + 2y) = 0.40(x + 5y) \]
Simplifying both sides: \[ \frac{1}{2}(x + 2y) = \frac{2}{5}(x + 5y) \]
Multiply both sides by 10 to eliminate fractions: \[ 5(x + 2y) = 4(x + 5y) \]
Expand both sides: \[ 5x + 10y = 4x + 20y \]
Move terms involving \( x \) and \( y \) to respective sides: \[ 5x - 4x = 20y - 10y \] \[ x = 10y \]
Thus, \( y = \frac{x}{10} \), so \( y \) is 10% of \( x \).

Conclusion:
The percentage of \( x \) that is \( y \) is 10%. Quick Tip: When solving for percentages, isolate the variable and simplify the equation to find the percentage.

To solve the problem, let's determine the work rates of each individual and then analyze the work pattern.


1. Determine Individual Work Rates:

Let \( A \)'s work rate be \( \frac{1}{20} \) of the work per day.

\( A \) and \( B \) together can complete the work in 12 days, so their combined work rate is \( \frac{1}{12} \) per day.

Therefore, \( B \)'s work rate is \( \frac{1}{12} - \frac{1}{20} = \frac{5}{60} - \frac{3}{60} = \frac{2}{60} = \frac{1}{30} \) per day.

\( A \), \( B \), and \( C \) together can complete the work in 10 days, so their combined work rate is \( \frac{1}{10} \) per day.

Therefore, \( C \)'s work rate is \( \frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{12} = \frac{6}{60} - \frac{5}{60} = \frac{1}{60} \) per day.


2. Analyze the Work Pattern:

The pattern repeats every 3 days: \( A \), \( A \) and \( B \), \( A \) and \( C \).

Calculate the work done in each 3-day cycle:

Day 1: \( A \) works alone: \( \frac{1}{20} \).

Day 2: \( A \) and \( B \) work together: \( \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{30} = \frac{3}{60} + \frac{2}{60} = \frac{5}{60} = \frac{1}{12} \).

Day 3: \( A \) and \( C \) work together: \( \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{60} = \frac{3}{60} + \frac{1}{60} = \frac{4}{60} = \frac{1}{15} \).

Total work done in 3 days: \( \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{15} = \frac{3}{60} + \frac{5}{60} + \frac{4}{60} = \frac{12}{60} = \frac{1}{5} \).


3. Calculate Total Days Required:

Since \( \frac{1}{5} \) of the work is done in 3 days, the entire work will be completed in \( 3 \times 5 = 15 \) days.


Therefore, the correct option is:


\boxed{15 \text{ days

Conclusion:
The work will be done in 15 days. Quick Tip: When work is done in a pattern, calculate the total work done per cycle and then find the number of cycles required.

Let the cost price of the item be \( C \).
Profit when selling for Rs 2650: \[ Profit = 2650 - C \]
Loss when selling for Rs 2375: \[ Loss = C - 2375 \]
According to the given information, the profit is 20% more than the loss: \[ 2650 - C = 1.20 \times (C - 2375) \]
Expanding: \[ 2650 - C = 1.20C - 2850 \]
Simplifying: \[ 2650 + 2850 = 2.20C \] \[ 5500 = 2.20C \quad \Rightarrow \quad C = \frac{5500}{2.20} = 2500 \]

Now, to earn a 20% profit, the selling price should be: \[ Selling Price = C \times (1 + \frac{20}{100}) = 2500 \times 1.20 = 3000 \]

Conclusion:
The item should be sold for Rs 3000 to earn 20% profit. Quick Tip: To find the selling price for a given profit percentage, multiply the cost price by \( (1 + \frac{profit percentage}{100}) \).

By Fermat's Little Theorem, for any integer \( a \) and a prime \( p \), if \( p \) does not divide \( a \), then: \[ a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \ (mod \ p) \]
Here \( a = 13 \) and \( p = 14 \).
Since \( 13^{13-1} \equiv 1 \ (mod \ 14) \), the remainder when dividing \( 13^{100} \) by 14 is: \[ 13^{100} \equiv 1 \ (mod \ 14) \]

Conclusion:
The remainder when \( 13^{100} \) is divided by 14 is 1. Quick Tip: Fermat's Little Theorem helps in finding remainders when large powers are divided by prime numbers.

Let the rates of interest be \( r_1 \) and \( r_2 \) for the two sources.
The formula for simple interest is: \[ Interest = \frac{P \times r \times t}{100} \]
For the first source: \[ Interest_1 = \frac{1000 \times r_1 \times 3}{100} \]
For the second source: \[ Interest_2 = \frac{1000 \times r_2 \times 3}{100} \]
The difference in interest is given as Rs 90: \[ \frac{1000 \times r_1 \times 3}{100} - \frac{1000 \times r_2 \times 3}{100} = 90 \]
Simplifying: \[ 30(r_1 - r_2) = 90 \quad \Rightarrow \quad r_1 - r_2 = 3 \]

Conclusion:
The difference between the rates of interest is 3%. Quick Tip: The difference in simple interest is directly related to the difference in interest rates when the principal and time are constant.

The smallest number that leaves no remainder when divided by all numbers from 1 to 9 is the least common multiple (LCM) of these numbers.
The prime factorizations of the numbers are: \[ 1 = 1, \quad 2 = 2, \quad 3 = 3, \quad 4 = 2^2, \quad 5 = 5, \quad 6 = 2 \times 3, \quad 7 = 7, \quad 8 = 2^3, \quad 9 = 3^2 \]
The LCM is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors: \[ LCM = 2^3 \times 3^2 \times 5 \times 7 = 2520 \]

Conclusion:
The smallest number divisible by all numbers from 1 to 9 is 2520. Quick Tip: To find the LCM, take the highest powers of all prime factors from the numbers involved.

Given \( K = 5 + 2\sqrt{6} \), we need to find \( \frac{K - 1}{\sqrt{K}} \).

Start by calculating \( K - 1 \): \[ K - 1 = 5 + 2\sqrt{6} - 1 = 4 + 2\sqrt{6} \]

Next, we find \( \sqrt{K} \).
Assume \( \sqrt{K} = a + b\sqrt{6} \), where \( a \) and \( b \) are constants. Squaring both sides: \[ K = (a + b\sqrt{6})^2 = a^2 + 2ab\sqrt{6} + 6b^2 \]
Comparing this with \( K = 5 + 2\sqrt{6} \), we equate the rational and irrational parts: \[ a^2 + 6b^2 = 5 \quad (rational part) \] \[ 2ab = 2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad ab = 1 \quad (irrational part) \]
From \( ab = 1 \), we get \( b = \frac{1}{a} \). Substituting this into \( a^2 + 6b^2 = 5 \): \[ a^2 + 6\left(\frac{1}{a}\right)^2 = 5 \] \[ a^4 - 5a^2 + 6 = 0 \]
Solving this quadratic in terms of \( a^2 \), we get: \[ a^2 = 2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad a = \sqrt{2} \]
Thus, \( b = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \), and: \[ \sqrt{K} = \sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3} \]

Finally, we calculate \( \frac{K - 1}{\sqrt{K}} \): \[ \frac{K - 1}{\sqrt{K}} = \frac{4 + 2\sqrt{6}}{\sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3}} = 2\sqrt{2} \]

Conclusion:
The value of \( \frac{K - 1}{\sqrt{K}} \) is \( 2\sqrt{2} \). Quick Tip: When dealing with square roots involving surds, assume a suitable form and equate rational and irrational parts to simplify.

We are given the multiplication \( 6.3 \times 0.06 \).

First, multiply the numbers as if they were integers: \[ 630 \times 6 = 3780 \]
Now, count the decimal places: 1 decimal place in 6.3 and 2 decimal places in 0.06, so the total is 3 decimal places.
Thus, the result is: \[ 0.3780 \]
Since the decimal repeats, we round it to: \[ 0.\overline{38} \]

Conclusion:
The value of \( 6.3 \times 0.06 \) is \( 0.\overline{38} \). Quick Tip: When multiplying decimals, treat the numbers as integers first and then adjust the decimal place based on the number of decimal digits.

The original cube is cut into 64 smaller cubes, meaning the cube is divided into \( 4 \times 4 \times 4 \) smaller cubes.
Each smaller cube has a side length of \( \frac{1}{4} \) of the original cube's side length.

The cubes with two faces painted red and black must be the ones located at the edges where the red and black faces meet. These cubes are located on the edges where two painted faces meet.

Since each edge of the cube has 4 cubes, and only the two cubes at the ends of the edges have two painted faces, there are 4 edges where the red and black faces meet. Thus, the number of cubes with two faces painted red and black is: \[ 4 \times 2 = 8 \]

Conclusion:
The number of cubes with two faces painted red and black is 8. Quick Tip: When cubes are cut from a larger cube, focus on the edges where the painted faces meet to count cubes with specific paint combinations.

Let's analyze the given conditions step by step:

1. D is not a neighbor of C or E.
2. A is a neighbor of B and C.
3. G, who is second to the left of D, is the neighbor of E and F.

From these conditions, we deduce that the correct seating arrangement around the table is: \[ G \, F \, D \, A \, B \, C \, E \]
Thus, the order is GFD.

Conclusion:
The correct order is GFD. Quick Tip: When dealing with circular seating arrangements, carefully consider all relationships and restrictions to determine the correct order.

The statement "My husband is the father of my son" means that Meera's husband is the father of Meera's son. Therefore, the man in question is Meera's son.

Conclusion:
The man is Meera's son. Quick Tip: Carefully read the relationships described in the problem and trace the connection between the individuals to determine the correct answer.

First, replace the operators as per the given instructions:

÷ becomes +

− becomes ÷

× becomes −

+ becomes ×


Now, rewrite the expression with the new operators: \[ \frac{(36 - 4) ÷ 8 - 4}{4 × 8 - 2 + 16 + 1} \]

Simplify the numerator and the denominator step by step:

Numerator: \[ (36 - 4) ÷ 8 - 4 = 32 ÷ 8 - 4 = 4 - 4 = 0 \]

Denominator: \[ 4 × 8 - 2 + 16 + 1 = 32 - 2 + 16 + 1 = 47 \]

Now, divide the simplified numerator by the denominator: \[ \frac{0}{47} = 0 \]

Thus, the final result is: \[ 0 \]

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (4), 0.
Quick Tip: Always double-check the operator replacements and the order of operations when solving such problems.

We need to identify the occurrences of 5s that are preceded by 2 or 3 but not followed by 7 or 8.


The sequence is: 4595359458256725485359510.


Checking the conditions:


The 5 at position 2 is preceded by 4 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 3 is preceded by 5 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 4 is preceded by 3 (valid, not followed by 7 or 8).

The 5 at position 5 is preceded by 5 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 6 is preceded by 9 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 7 is preceded by 8 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 8 is preceded by 2 (valid, not followed by 7 or 8).

The 5 at position 9 is preceded by 5 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 10 is preceded by 9 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 11 is preceded by 5 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 12 is preceded by 4 (not 2 or 3).

The 5 at position 13 is preceded by 5 (not 2 or 3).


Thus, there are 4 valid occurrences of 5 that meet the given conditions.


Conclusion:
The correct answer is 4. Quick Tip: When counting specific conditions in a sequence, check for the required surrounding elements and make sure no additional conditions are violated.

Step 1: Understanding the Directions

The boy starts at a point, which we will call point $O$ (the starting point).

He rides his bicycle northward. Let us denote the distance he rides north as $x$ kilometers.


Step 2: First Turn

After riding north for $x$ kilometers, he turns left. Since he was heading north, turning left means he is now heading west.

He rides 1 kilometer to the west. Let us denote the new position after this ride as point $A$.


Step 3: Second Turn

From point $A$, he again turns left. Since he was heading west, turning left means he is now heading south.

He rides 2 kilometers south. Let us denote the new position after this ride as point $B$.


Step 4: Analyzing the Final Position

According to the problem, after these movements, he finds himself exactly 1 kilometer west of his starting point $O$.

This means that the horizontal distance from point $O$ to point $B$ is 1 kilometer to the west.


Step 5: Establishing the Coordinates

Assume point $O$ is at the origin $(0,0)$.

After riding north $x$ kilometers, the coordinates of point $A$ would be $(0, x)$.

After riding 1 kilometer west, the coordinates of point $A$ become $(-1, x)$.

After riding 2 kilometers south, the coordinates of point $B$ become $(-1, x - 2)$.


Step 6: Setting Up the Equation

Since point $B$ is 1 kilometer west of point $O$, its coordinates must be $(-1, 0)$.

Therefore, we set up the equation: \[ x - 2 = 0. \]

Step 7: Solving for $x$
\[ x - 2 = 0 \quad \Longrightarrow \quad x = 2. \]


Conclusion:
The boy initially rode 2 km northwards. Quick Tip: In direction problems, visualize the movements step by step to deduce the required distance.

The series is: 0, 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, ?, 147.

We observe the differences between successive terms: \[ 3 - 0 = 3 \] \[ 12 - 3 = 9 \] \[ 27 - 12 = 15 \] \[ 48 - 27 = 21 \] \[ 75 - 48 = 27 \]

The differences are increasing by 6 each time: 3, 9, 15, 21, 27.

Thus, the next difference will be: \[ 27 + 6 = 33 \]
Therefore, the next term is: \[ 75 + 33 = 108 \]

Conclusion:
The missing term is 108. Quick Tip: In series problems, observe the pattern in differences between terms to find the missing term.

We are given the code for DECIDE as 1f 453945. Let's analyze the pattern:

D is coded as 4,

E is coded as 5,

C is coded as 3,

I is coded as 9,

D is coded as 4,

E is coded as 5.


Now, for the code 8978:

8 corresponds to H,

9 corresponds to I,

7 corresponds to G,

8 corresponds to H.


Thus, the word is HIGH.


Conclusion:
The code 8978 corresponds to the word HIGH. Quick Tip: When decoding letters, observe the numerical patterns and map them back to the corresponding letters.

The statement "His recent investment in the shares of company A is only a gamble" implies that the outcome of the investment is uncertain and could go either way (gain or loss). Therefore, both assumptions I and II are implicit.

Conclusion:
Either assumption I or II is implicit in the statement. Quick Tip: When evaluating assumptions, focus on the underlying implication of the statement and consider both possible outcomes.

Both arguments present valid perspectives:

Argument I suggests that involvement in politics can develop leadership skills, which is a strong point.

Argument II suggests that students should focus on their studies, which is also a reasonable view.


Since both arguments can be considered strong depending on the viewpoint, either argument can be strong.


Conclusion:
Either argument I or II is strong. Quick Tip: When evaluating arguments, consider multiple viewpoints and determine if both sides provide reasonable justifications.

From 26th January to 31st January: 6 days.

From 1st February to 29th February (leap year): 29 days.

From 1st March to 31st March: 31 days.

From 1st April to 30th April: 30 days.

From 1st May to 15th May: 15 days.


Total number of days = 6 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 15 = 111.

Conclusion:
There are 111 days from 26th January 2004 to 15th May 2004. Quick Tip: When calculating the number of days between two dates, account for leap years and the specific number of days in each month.

Let the total number of boys be \( x \).
The boy who is 19th from both ends implies that there are 18 boys in front and 18 boys behind him.

Thus, the total number of boys is: \[ x = 18 + 1 + 18 = 37 \]

Conclusion:
There are 37 boys in the class. Quick Tip: To solve problems involving positions in a line, consider the number of boys before and after the given position.

The assertion is correct as glass breaks when hot water is poured into it due to thermal shock. The reason is also true: the outer surface of the glass expands due to the heat. However, the reason is not the correct explanation, as the glass breaks because of the unequal expansion between the outer and inner surfaces, causing stress that leads to the breakage.

Conclusion:
Both statements are true, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion. Quick Tip: In thermal shock problems, unequal expansion between inner and outer surfaces causes breakage.

Reversing the digits of each number:

738 becomes 837

429 becomes 924

156 becomes 651

273 becomes 372

894 becomes 498


The second highest number after reversing the digits is 924, and the last digit of 924 is 7.


Conclusion:
The last digit of the second highest number after reversing the digits is 7. Quick Tip: To find the largest or second largest number after digit reversal, first reverse all digits and then sort the numbers.

From the statements, we cannot directly conclude any of the conclusions. The given statements do not provide enough information to logically conclude any of the provided options.

Conclusion:
None of the conclusions logically follows from the statements. Quick Tip: When dealing with logical reasoning problems, check the direct connections between statements and conclusions before deciding.

The Group of Twenty (G20) includes 19 countries and the European Union. Peru is not a part of the G20, while Argentina, Mexico, and Saudi Arabia are.

Conclusion:
Peru is not part of the G20. Quick Tip: Keep track of the current members of international groups like the G20 for accurate knowledge.

Ballon Roberto was not one of the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Awardees. Rakshand Korvi, Lemos Eugenio, and Coronel-Ferrer, Miriam were all recipients.

Conclusion:
Ballon Roberto is not one of the Ramon Magsaysay Awardees for 2023. Quick Tip: Stay updated with the latest news on prestigious awards like the Ramon Magsaysay Award.

Swapnil Sanjay Patil was awarded the Arjuna Award for Para Swimming in 2022.

Conclusion:
Swapnil Sanjay Patil received the Arjuna Award for Para Swimming. Quick Tip: Check official announcements for the latest winners of sports awards like the Arjuna Award.

The Indo-Greeks (B) ruled after the Mauryan Empire, followed by the Shakas (A), and then the Kushanas (C).

Conclusion:
The correct chronological order is B, A, C. Quick Tip: When studying history, use a timeline of events to understand the chronological order of empires and kingdoms.

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in 1915, not 1918. Statement B is correct as Gandhi fought against the racist regime in South Africa using Satyagraha.

Conclusion:
Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct. Quick Tip: Verify historical dates and events from reliable sources before concluding.

Alexander Cunningham published a set of Ashokan inscriptions in 1877.

Conclusion:
The correct year is 1877. Quick Tip: When studying historical publications, check the precise year of significant archaeological findings.

Step-by-Step Matching:


1. Year 1801 (A)

\quad In 1801, the Subsidiary Alliance was imposed on the state of Awadh by Lord Wellesley. This aligns with option IV (``Sebastiany Alliance introduced by Wellesley in Awadh''), albeit the correct term is typically ``Subsidiary Alliance''.


2. Year 1858 (B)

\quad In June 1858, Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi was killed in the battle against the British during the Revolt of 1857--1858. This corresponds to option II (``Rani Jhansi killed in Battle'').


3. Year 1856 (C)

\quad In 1856, Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh was deposed by the British. This matches option I (``Nawab Wajid Ali Shah deposed'').


4. Year 1857 (D)

\quad The Revolt of 1857 is famously noted to have begun in May 1857 at Meerut. This is reflected by option III (``Mutray sartri in Meerat''), which seems to refer to the outbreak of the Mutiny in Meerut.


Hence, the correct matching is:
\[ \begin{aligned} &A \to IV,
&B \to II,
&C \to I,
&D \to III. \end{aligned} \]

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Quick Tip: When matching historical events with years, ensure you have accurate historical knowledge or references to verify the correct associations.

Kalidasa is known for works like Kumarsambhava, Raghuvamsa, and Meghaduta. However, Uttarramcharita was written by another great poet, Bhavabhuti.

Conclusion:
*Uttarramcharita* was not written by Kalidasa. Quick Tip: When studying classical literature, verify the authorship of works based on historical sources.

The ancient rock-cut caves of Karla and Bhaja are located near Khandala in Maharashtra. These caves are important examples of early Buddhist rock-cut architecture.

Conclusion:
The caves are situated in Khandala. Quick Tip: In historical geography, ancient cave locations often correspond to regions of early religious significance.

Maize (corn) requires well-drained, fertile soils, moderate temperatures, and plenty of sunlight to grow well. It thrives under these conditions, which make it suitable for a wide range of climates.

Conclusion:
Maize is the crop that needs well-drained, fertile soils, moderate temperatures, and lots of sunshine. Quick Tip: When growing crops, consider factors such as soil type, temperature, and sunlight to determine the best crop for the region.

Chilika Lake, located in Odisha, is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the second-largest in the world. It is a saltwater lake and a hotspot for biodiversity.

Conclusion:
Chilika is the largest saltwater lake in India. Quick Tip: When learning about natural landmarks, remember that lakes like Chilika are critical for local ecosystems and biodiversity.

Fossils are the remains or impressions of plants and animals that have been preserved in the Earth's crust, typically in rock layers. These provide important clues about ancient life and past environments.

Conclusion:
The remains of dead plants and animals trapped in rock layers are called fossils. Quick Tip: Fossils provide valuable insights into the history of life on Earth and are commonly found in sedimentary rock layers.

Typhoid and tuberculosis (TB) are both caused by bacterial infections. Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, and tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Conclusion:
Typhoid and tuberculosis are bacterial diseases. Quick Tip: Understanding the causative agents of diseases helps in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

The second law of motion states that the force acting on an object is directly proportional to its mass and acceleration (\( F = ma \)). When the athlete falls, the cushioning or sand reduces the force acting on them by increasing the time of impact, thereby reducing acceleration. This is a practical application of the second law, where force is reduced to prevent injury.

Conclusion:
The second law of motion applies here, as the force is reduced by extending the time of impact. Quick Tip: To reduce the impact force during falls, increasing the time over which the deceleration happens is key, such as using a cushioned bed or sand.

Both the common cold and influenza are viral infections caused by different types of viruses. The common cold is typically caused by rhinoviruses, while influenza is caused by influenza viruses. Unlike bacterial infections, these are viral and require antiviral treatments for management.

Conclusion:
Both common cold and influenza are caused by viruses. Quick Tip: Viral infections like the common cold and influenza are typically managed with antiviral medications and rest, unlike bacterial infections that require antibiotics.

The "Autosum" button is a feature in Microsoft Excel that allows users to quickly sum a range of cells. It is not available in MS Word or PowerPoint. The function is specifically designed for spreadsheet applications, which is why it's found in Excel.

Conclusion:
The "Autosum" button is available in Excel worksheets. Quick Tip: In Excel, use the "Autosum" button to quickly calculate the sum of numbers in a column or row.

In Microsoft Excel, data sorting can be done easily using the sort function, which is a common feature for organizing data. However, MS Excel also provides the functionality to remove duplicates from data, making statement B incorrect.

Conclusion:
Only statement A is correct. Sorting is possible in Excel, and duplicates can also be removed. Quick Tip: In Excel, you can both sort data and remove duplicates from a dataset using built-in tools under the "Data" tab.

The High Courts in India were first established in the cities of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1862, following the creation of the Indian High Courts Act. Hyderabad did not have a High Court at that time.

Conclusion:
The High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1862. Quick Tip: Remember that the first High Courts in India were established in the major Presidency cities: Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.

Statement A is correct, as the Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction over disputes between the Union and the States. Statement B is incorrect, as legal disputes between States are also handled by the Supreme Court, not the High Courts.

Conclusion:
Only statement A is correct. Quick Tip: In India, disputes between the Union and States, or between States themselves, are settled by the Supreme Court, not the High Courts.

The term "judicial review" is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India, but it is implied through judicial interpretations. Statement B is incorrect because High Courts in India do have the power to issue writs of Habeas Corpus, which is a fundamental right.

Conclusion:
Neither statement A nor B is correct. Quick Tip: Judicial review is an implied power of the judiciary in India, not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Irish Constitution, which had similar provisions for the welfare of the people. These principles guide the government in promoting social and economic justice.

Conclusion:
The Directive Principles are inspired by the Irish Constitution. Quick Tip: The Irish Constitution influenced the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution.

The Gold Standard was a system where countries fixed their currencies to a specific quantity of gold, establishing a fixed exchange rate. This system was in use from around 1870 to 1914, before it was replaced by modern floating exchange rate systems.

Conclusion:
The Gold Standard was a fixed exchange rate system. Quick Tip: The Gold Standard was based on pegging currencies to a fixed amount of gold, leading to fixed exchange rates.

Infant mortality rate (IMR) refers to the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a given year. It is a critical indicator of the overall health care quality in a country or region.

Conclusion:
Infant mortality rate refers to the death of children below 1 year of age. Quick Tip: The Infant Mortality Rate is a key health indicator and is measured as the number of deaths per 1,000 live births for children under one year.

The Capital Account includes transactions related to external borrowings, external assistance, and investments. Transfer payments, however, are part of the current account, not the capital account.

Conclusion:
The components of the Capital Account are A, C, and D only. Quick Tip: The Capital Account records transactions involving capital flows like external borrowings and investments, while transfer payments belong to the current account.

Variables are generally classified into two broad categories: continuous and discrete. Continuous variables can take any value within a given range, while discrete variables can only take specific values, usually integers.

Conclusion:
Variables are classified as continuous and discrete. Quick Tip: When classifying variables, continuous variables can take any value in a range, whereas discrete variables are distinct and often countable.