AIBE 19 Question Paper (Set B) with Answer key and Solution PDF is available to download here. AIBE 19 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on December 22, 2024. The question paper comprised a total of 100 questions.
AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set B)
| AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set B) | Download PDF |
Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?
A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
Maya files a suit in Court A for recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as she is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, stating that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A reviews and decides that Seema should indeed be included. Which principle of CPC is applied in this situation?
Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
Which section of the CPC provides exemption to the President of India and the Governors of states from personal appearance in court?
What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
Under which order of the CPC is the procedure for summary suits provided?
Which section mandates State Government to prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
_____ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in:
In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to BSA 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?
Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as:
Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
According to Section 46 of BSA, when is character evidence relevant in civil cases?
Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of "res judicata"?
Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when are leading questions permissible in court proceedings?
Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding arbitration. If the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator, which provision of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies?
Which of the following is not an advantage of ADR?
Kiran and Meera are in arbitration. Meera refuses to pay the arbitral award of Rs. 10 lakhs. Kiran approaches court to enforce the award. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs enforcement?
As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about officer signing or certifying a document is:
Under Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the divorced person may remarry after:
Aarti seeks divorce under Section 13(1)(ia) of Hindu Marriage Act for cruelty. Which statement is true?
On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
Nisha and Aakash both claim custody of their child Aarav. Which factor will the court primarily consider under Guardian and Wards Act, 1890?
Match the following:
a. Spoken words — i. Sunna-ul-Qaul
b. Deepika vs. CAT — ii. Customary Law
c. Silence — iii. Sunna-ul-Taqrir
d. Ass Kaur vs. Kartar Singh — iv. Atypical Relationships
e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI — v. Triple Talaq
vi. Maintenance
Which sections discuss “sapinda relationships” under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?
The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section ___ of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
In which case did a prison inmate send a letter to the Supreme Court about torture, pioneering PIL based on letters?
In the 1980s, the Supreme Court recognized right against forced labour as fundamental under Article 21 in which context?
View Solution
Step 1: Context.
Social activists highlighted bonded labour exploitation.
Step 2: Court view.
Supreme Court linked right against bonded labour to Article 21’s right to life and dignity.
Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: Article 21 = life + dignity; bonded labour violates it.
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
1. In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role like in traditional cases.
2. PIL is mainly for individual disputes.
Fatima divorced under Talaq seeks maintenance. Which statement is correct under Muslim law?
Which best defines delegated legislation?
In 2020, Dhodoro Panchayat elections delayed due to Covid. Mr. Haribansh restricted economic activity via Panchayat law. Which case is relevant?
Which of the following is/are not grounds for judicial review of administrative action?
1. Illegality
2. Irrationality
3. Proportionality
4. Public opinion
What does “conflict of interest” refer to in professional ethics?
Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party in a property dispute case, harming his client’s interest and failing to inform about hearing dates. Which is the correct legal position?
The nature of proceedings in cases of professional misconduct is:
Assertion (A): The concept of “locus standi” is relaxed in PIL cases.
Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of others.
As per Section 2(84), “share” in a company includes:
Section 43 of Companies Act, 2013 provides for:
Company X discharges untreated waste into a river, causing pollution. Despite complaints, no action taken. Which section of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 applies?
Which Act is known as Umbrella Legislation?
Which intermediaries are covered under Section 2(1)(w) IT Act, 2000?
Which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards against bias?
1. Acting in fraudulent manner
2. Peer-review of valuation if needed
3. Disclosure of prior association with client
4. Disclosure of conflict of interest source
Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020?
____ have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
XYZ Textiles Ltd. terminated four workers for misconduct without paying compensation. Workers’ claim for retrenchment compensation was rejected. Under the ID Act, 1947, choose the correct option.
Malti’s e-commerce site was hacked; customers’ personal data was stolen and unauthorized transactions followed. What is the correct legal position under the IT Act, 2000?
Mr. B threatened Mr. A with violence to compel him to vacate premises; there was no physical contact. Under which tort can A sue?
View Solution
Assault is the creation of a reasonable apprehension of imminent harmful or offensive contact; actual contact is unnecessary. Here, threatening gestures and words to “break the neck” create immediate fear of force. Battery would require physical touching, which did not occur. Therefore, the appropriate tort is assault. Quick Tip: Assault = apprehension of contact; Battery = actual contact.
Ms. J knew the driver T was under the influence of alcohol, yet took a lift and was injured in the resulting crash. Which defence can T invoke?
Mr. K loses rental income because noise and smoke from a newly erected adjacent mill drive away tenants. Which tort best applies?
View Solution
Private nuisance is a substantial and unreasonable interference with the plaintiff’s use or enjoyment of land—classically via noise, smoke, smell, or vibrations. The mill’s emissions interfere with habitability and cause economic loss from vacant rooms. “Coming to the nuisance” is no defence here since the mill arose later. Hence nuisance is the apt classification. Quick Tip: Noise/smoke affecting neighbours’ enjoyment = classic private nuisance.
Two buses collide: the private bus was on the wrong side; the government bus was being driven rashly and failed to slow down. Identify the tortious position.
The term “Income” is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under:
Mr. X deposits ₹65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under Section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Agricultural income is exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Statement 2: Tax on non-agricultural income in case non-agricultural income exceeds the basic exemption limit and agricultural income exceeds ₹5000 is determined by the scheme of partial integration of non-agricultural income with agricultural income.
Ms. J, a banker, refuses to honour cheque of Ms. F though she had sufficient balance. Ms. F did not suffer financial loss. Ms. F can file a case under which principle?
An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under:
Which of the following is not a contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Which of the following contracts must be in writing?
Which of the following agreements is expressly declared void?
View Solution
The Indian Contract Act declares certain agreements void. Among these, any agreement that restrains a person’s freedom to marry is void under Section 26, as it opposes public policy. Quick Tip: Agreements restraining marriage, trade, or legal proceedings are void.
Which of the following is not a remedy for breach of contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with
View Solution
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 primarily deals with the general principles relating to the law of contract. Separate laws govern partnerships, companies, and cooperative societies. Quick Tip: Contract Act = general law; special contracts have their own Acts.
A contingent contract is defined under Section ___ of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
View Solution
Section 31 defines a contingent contract as one dependent on the happening or non-happening of an uncertain future event. Example: a contract to pay money if a ship returns safely. Quick Tip: Section 31 = contingent contracts; Section 32 = enforcement rules for contingent contracts.
Which section of the Law of Contract defines, “A proposal may be revoked at any time, before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards”?
According to the Land Acquisition Act, 2013, governments can acquire land for:
Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to:
In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024”, which includes provisions:
The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the ____.
Which Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
In which case was a Legislative Society held to be “State” for the purpose of Article 12?
Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be “Criminal Force” –
According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?
According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death in which offences?
Rajesh strikes Sunil with a heavy iron rod, fracturing his arm. The medical report confirms the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which offence has Rajesh committed?
Amit, intending to cause death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay dies on the spot. Investigation proves Amit’s intention to kill. Which offence has Amit committed?
Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNSS?
A new offense of ‘Snatching’ has been introduced by the BNSS. Which section of the BNSS defines ‘Snatching’ as an offense?
Consider the following statements and answer the question given below:
Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of a bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following:
BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as:
The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least ___ years.
Which section of the BNSS allows for trial in absentia of proclaimed offenders?
Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikram. Which of the following offenses under the BNSS have Amit and Rani committed?
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