AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer key and Solution PDF is available to download here. AIBE 19 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on December 22, 2024. The AIBE question paper comprised a total of 100 questions according to AIBE Syllabus.
AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set A)
| AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set A) | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
Question 1:
In which case was a registered society held to be an “authority” for the purpose of Article 12?
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
Which of the following statements is correct about the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024,” which includes the following provisions:
The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the ______.
Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be “Criminal Force”:
According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?
According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed?
Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil’s arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which of the following offences has Rajesh committed?
Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay. Which of the following offences has Amit committed?
Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner arrives. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing. The police arrest them. Which of the following offences under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?
A new offence of “Snatching” has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines “Snatching” as an offence?
Consider the following statements and answer:
Mr. Patel, being a police officer, receives a complaint that Raju was involved in a robbery of bank property and helped to hide valuables in his farm, as stated by villagers. With this regard:
BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offences irrespective of area where the offence is committed. This FIR is known as:
The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least ______ years.
Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?
Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring expeditious resolution of cases?
A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming bias of the judge. The opposing party objects, stating the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of money from Neha. During proceedings, Neha requests that Seema be added as a defendant, claiming Seema is liable. Maya objects. The Court reviews the application and decides Seema should be included as a defendant. Which principle of CPC is applied?
Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of states from personal appearance in court?
What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?
Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of “res judicata”?
____ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in:
In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this evidence?
Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as:
Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?
As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when are leading questions permissible in court proceedings?
Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding arbitration. Parties fail to agree on arbitrator. Which provision of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies?
Which of the following is not an advantage of ADR?
Kiran wins arbitral award; Meera refuses to pay citing irregularities. Kiran seeks court enforcement. Which ACA 1996 section applies?
Which sections discuss “sapinda relationships” under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?
Under Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the divorced person, to marry again:
Aarti seeks divorce on cruelty grounds under Section 13(1)(ia) HMA. Which is true?
On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
Custody under Guardian and Wards Act, 1890 – main factor?
Match the following:
a. Spoken words – (i) Sunna-ul-Qaul
b. Deepika vs. CAT – (ii) Customary Law
c. Silence – (iii) Sunna-ul-Tagrir
d. Ass Kaur vs. Kartar Singh – (iv) Atypical Relationships
e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI – (v) Triple Talaq
f. Maintenance – (vi) Maintenance
Fatima seeks maintenance post-divorce under Muslim law. Which is true?
Remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section ___ of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Which case pioneered prison letters as PIL on torture?
View Solution
In Sunil Batra (1978), a prisoner’s letter about torture was treated as PIL by SC, expanding scope of Article 21 protections. Quick Tip: Sunil Batra = milestone PIL on custodial torture via prison letters.
1980s bonded labour case – what did SC hold?
View Solution
The SC held that right against bonded labour is part of right to life and dignity under Article 21. It recognized forced labour as unconstitutional. Quick Tip: Article 21 → includes freedom from bonded labour.
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases.
Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.
Assertion (A): The concept of “locus standi” is relaxed in PIL cases.
Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves.
Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?
In 2020 at Dhorodo village the Panchayat elections could not happen due to Covid pandemic while the tenure of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh represented the people that year at the Panchayat post dissolution of the Panchayat tenure and made a law exercising the delegated power, vide, the Panchayati Raj Act of the state to restrict economic activities per day to ₹100 only. In which of the following cases this is allowed or restricted?
Which of the following is/are not ground/s for judicial review of administrative action?
What does “conflict of interest” refer to in professional ethics?
Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y’s interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
The nature of proceedings in the cases of professional misconduct is:
Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectivity and counter any perception of possible bias, which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards?
As per Section 2(84) Share means share in the share capital of a Company and includes:
Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for ________.
A manufacturing company in Surat named “X” has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary?
Malti, a small business owner, runs an online store. Her site was hacked and customer data stolen. Which provision applies?
Which of the following is/are included under “employer” in Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
Which of the following legislations is included under the Social Security Code, 2020?
________ have not been set up under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
XYZ Textiles Ltd. terminated 4 workers for misconduct without compensation. Under ID Act, select the correct answer.
Ms J, a banker refuses to honour a cheque of Ms F despite sufficient balance. Ms F suffers no monetary loss. Which maxim applies?
Mr B told Mr A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr A. When Mr A refused, Mr B collected some of his workmen who mustered round Mr A. They tucked up their sleeves and aprons and threatened to break the plaintiff’s neck, but did not leave. Under which tortious act, Mr A can file the case?
Ms J knowingly took a lift with driver Mr T who was under the influence of alcohol. The car met with an accident and Ms J got injuries. She filed a case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr T?
Mr K is owner of a building containing many rooms and earns rent from it. Mr Y is owner of an adjacent cotton mill which causes noise and smoke, forcing tenants to vacate rooms and resulting in loss of rent for Mr K. Which tort applies?
There was a collision between a government-owned bus and a private bus. Both were driving negligently and caused damage. Determine the tortious act.
The term “Income” is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under _____.
Mr X deposits ₹65,000 in a 5-year term deposit with the Post Office to avail deduction under Section 80C. Assuming Mr X does not opt for the concessional regime u/s 115BAC, what is correct?
Read the statements:
1. Agricultural income is exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961.
2. Non-agricultural income above exemption + agricultural income above ₹5000 is taxable via partial integration.
Rent-free accommodation provided by employer to employee is ____.
An agreement not enforceable by law is called ___.
The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections ___.
"A", a real estate developer, entered into a contract with "B", the owner of a piece of land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that "A" would pay 50 lakhs in advance and the remaining 1 crore within six months. In return, "B" agreed to transfer the title to the land. However, after receiving the advance payment, "B" refused to execute the sale deed claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. "A" demanded the enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but "B" denied his claim. "A" has to file a suit in a court of law.
"A" transfers a piece of land to "B" on the condition that "B" shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, "B" has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years.
Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of ₹50,000 to his supplier, Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark "Insufficient Funds." On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
View Solution
Step 1: Law applicable.
Cheque dishonour is governed by Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Step 2: Complaint period.
Complaint must be filed within one month from the date on which cause of action arises after expiry of notice period.
Step 3: Elimination.
Options (A), (C), (D) provide wrong time limits.
Conclusion: Correct limit is one month. Quick Tip: For cheque bounce cases, complaint must be filed within one month after notice period lapses.
Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to:
How the recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced?
View Solution
Step 1: Law reference.
Recovery of specific immovable property is dealt under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Step 2: Mode of recovery.
It specifically provides that possession can be recovered in the manner provided under CPC, 1908.
Step 3: Elimination.
Options (A), (B), (C) are incorrect as they do not specify CPC, which is mandatory.
Conclusion: Recovery is through CPC. Quick Tip: Specific Relief Act refers to CPC for actual enforcement of recovery of immovable property.
Which section of Law of Contract defines, “A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards”?
According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013, governments can acquire land for:
Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called "FitLife" that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app’s name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app’s source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called "LyfWell", with a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers.
On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
Comments