The SBTET is conducting the AP POLYCET 2025 exam. The AP POLYCET 2025 exam was conducted on April 30, 2025 from 11AM to 1PM for Diploma in courses like Civil Engineering and Mechanical Engineering.
The AP POLYCET 2025 exam was held in offline PBT mode with a total of 120 MCQs divided between three subjects: Physics (40 questions), Chemistry (30 questions) and Mathematics (50 questions) to be completed in 120 minutes (2 hours) for a total of 120 marks. As per the AP POLYCET 2025 marking scheme, 1 mark is given for every correct answer, with no negative marking for incorrect answers.
The AP POLYCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available to download here.
AP POLYCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF
Question 1:
The points \( (1,5), (2,3) \) and \( (-2, -11) \) form a:
- (1) triangle
- (2) parallelogram
- (3) square
- (4) They are collinear
Question 2:
If \( 15 \cot A = 8 \), then \( \sin A = \, ? \)
- (1) \( \dfrac{8}{15} \)
- (2) \( \dfrac{15}{17} \)
- (3) \( \dfrac{17}{15} \)
- (4) \( \dfrac{8}{17} \)
Question 3:
Evaluate \( \dfrac{2 \tan 30^\circ}{1 + \tan^2 30^\circ} \)
- (1) \( \sin 60^\circ \)
- (2) \( \tan 60^\circ \)
- (3) \( \sin 30^\circ \)
- (4) \( \cot 60^\circ \)
Question 4:
Evaluate \( (\sec A + \tan A)(1 - \sin A) = \ ? \)
- (1) \( \sin A \)
- (2) \( \cos A \)
- (3) \( \csc A \)
- (4) \( \sec A \)
Question 5:
Which of the following is true?
- (1) \( \sin(A + B) = \sin A + \sin B \)
- (2) The value of \( \sin \theta \) increases as \( \theta \) increases, \( 0^\circ \leq \theta \leq 90^\circ \)
- (3) The value of \( \cos \theta \) increases as \( \theta \) increases, \( 0^\circ \leq \theta \leq 90^\circ \)
- (4) \( \sin \theta = \cos \theta \) for all values of \( \theta \)
Correct Answer: (2) The value of \( \sin \theta \) increases as \( \theta \) increases, \( 0^\circ \leq \theta \leq 90^\circ \)
View Solution
Question 6:
The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when it is above the horizontal level is:
- (1) angle of elevation
- (2) angle of depression
- (3) right angle
- (4) none of these
Question 7:
A ladder is leaned against a wall with angle of \(60^\circ\) with the ground and its foot is 6 feet away from the wall. Then the length of the ladder is:
- (1) \(12\) feet
- (2) \(36\) feet
- (3) \(6\) feet
- (4) \(24\) feet
Question 8:
Two cars are seen from the top of a tower of height 75 m with angles of depression \(30^\circ\) and \(45^\circ\). If the cars are on opposite sides of the tower along the same line, the distance between them is:
- (1) \(75(\sqrt{3}+1)\) m
- (2) \(75(\sqrt{3}-1)\) m
- (3) \(75(\sqrt{3}+1)\) m
- (4) \(75(\sqrt{3}-1)\) m
Question 9:
The number of tangents a circle can have from a point outside the circle is:
- (1) one
- (2) two
- (3) three
- (4) four
Question 10:
The angle made by the tangent at any point of the circle with the radius at the point of contact is:
- (1) \( 0^\circ \)
- (2) \( 45^\circ \)
- (3) \( 60^\circ \)
- (4) \( 90^\circ \)
Question 11:
A tangent \( PQ \) at a point \( P \) of a circle of radius 9 cm meets a line through the center \( O \) at a point \( Q \) such that \( OQ = 15 \) cm. The length of \( PQ \) is:
- (1) \( 12 \, cm \)
- (2) \( 13 \, cm \)
- (3) \( 24 \, cm \)
- (4) \( 25 \, cm \)
Question 12:
Area of a sector of a circle with radius 4 cm and angle 30° is (use \( \pi = 3.14 \)):
- (1) \( 4.08 \, cm^2 \)
- (2) \( 4 \, cm^2 \)
- (3) \( 4.18 \, cm^2 \)
- (4) \( 41.8 \, cm^2 \)
Question 13:
Length of an arc of a sector of angle 45° when the radius of the circle is 3 cm, is:
- (1) \( \frac{5\pi}{4} \, cm \)
- (2) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \, cm \)
- (3) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \, cm \)
- (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \, cm \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \, \text{cm} \)
View Solution
Question 14:
Area of minor segment if a chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre is (use \( \pi = 3.14 \)):
- (1) 28 cm\(^2\)
- (2) 28.5 cm\(^2\)
- (3) 27 cm\(^2\)
- (4) 27.5 cm\(^2\)
Question 15:
A toy is in the form of a cone of radius \( r \) and lateral height \( l \) mounted on a hemisphere of the same radius, and the total height of the toy is \( h \), then the total surface area of the toy is:
- (1) \( \pi r (2r + l) \)
- (2) \( 2\pi r + l \)
- (3) \( \pi r^2 l \)
- (4) \( \pi r^2 h \)
Question 16:
A model is made with two cones each of height 2 cm attached to the two ends of a cylinder. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. Then the volume of the model is (use \( \pi = \frac{22}{7} \)):
- (1) 24 \( cm^3 \)
- (2) 36 \( cm^3 \)
- (3) 72 \( cm^3 \)
- (4) 66 \( cm^3 \)
Question 17:
The mode and mean of a data are 7 and 5 respectively, then median is:
- (1) 12
- (2) \( \frac{17}{3} \)
- (3) 4
- (4) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
Question 18:
If assumed mean of a data is 47.5, \( \sum f_i d_i = 435 \) and \( \sum f_i = 30 \), then mean of that data is:
- (1) 42
- (2) 52
- (3) 62
- (4) 72
Question 19:
The cumulative frequency of a class is the frequency obtained by:
- (1) adding the frequencies of all the classes preceding the given class
- (2) adding the frequencies of all the classes succeeding the given class
- (3) subtracting the frequencies of all the preceding classes from one another
- (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) adding the frequencies of all the classes preceding the given class
View Solution
Question 20:
Formula for finding mode for grouped data is:
- (1) \( l + \left[ \frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2} \right] \times h \)
- (2) \( l - \left[ \frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2} \right] \times h \)
- (3) \( l - \left[ \frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2} \right] - h \)
- (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \( l - \left[ \frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2} \right] \times h \)
View Solution
Question 21:
Which of the following cannot be a probability?
- (1) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
- (2) 15%
- (3) 0.7
- (4) -1.5
Question 22:
If \( P(E) = \), then:
- (1) \( 1 - P(E) \)
- (2) \( 1 + P(E) \)
- (3) \( P(E) - 1 \)
- (4) None of these
Question 23:
Which of the following has equally likely outcomes?
- (1) Tossing a coin
- (2) Tossing two coins simultaneously
- (3) Rolling two dice
- (4) All of the above
Question 24:
A card is drawn from a set of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen card is:
- (1) \( \frac{4}{53} \)
- (2) \( \frac{1}{26} \)
- (3) \( \frac{1}{13} \)
- (4) \( \frac{4}{13} \)
Question 25:
Ram and Syam are friends. Probability that both will have same birthday is:
- (1) \( \frac{364}{365} \)
- (2) \( \frac{1}{365} \)
- (3) \( \frac{1}{364} \)
- (4) \( \frac{363}{365} \)
Question 26:
491400 =
- (1) \( 2^3 \times 3^3 \times 5^3 \times 7 \times 13 \)
- (2) \( 2^3 \times 3^3 \times 5^2 \times 7 \times 13 \)
- (3) \( 2^3 \times 3^2 \times 5^2 \times 7 \times 13 \)
- (4) \( 2^2 \times 3^2 \times 5^2 \times 7 \times 13 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 2^3 \times 3^3 \times 5^2 \times 7 \times 13 \)
View Solution
Question 27:
Which of the following is not irrational?
- (1) \( 5 - \sqrt{3} \)
- (2) \( 7 - \sqrt{4} \)
- (3) \( \sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3} \)
- (4) \( \sqrt{2} - \sqrt{3} \)
Question 28:
Which of the following is true?
- (1) \( HCF(p \times q \times r) \times LCM(p \times q \times r) = p \times q \times r \)
- (2) \( HCF(p \times q \times r) + LCM(p \times q \times r) = p \times q \times r \)
- (3) \( HCF(p \times q \times r) \times LCM(p \times q \times r) \neq p \times q \times r \)
- (4) \( HCF(p \times q \times r) - LCM(p \times q \times r) = p \times q \times r \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{HCF}(p \times q \times r) \times \text{LCM}(p \times q \times r) = p \times q \times r \)
View Solution
Question 29:
A prime number \( p \) divides \( a^2 \) where \( a \) is a positive integer, then
- (1) \( p \) divides \( a \)
- (2) \( p \) does not divide \( a \)
- (3) \( p \) is equal to \( a \)
- (4) All of these
Question 30:
The zero of linear polynomial \( ax + b \) is:
- (1) \( \frac{a}{b} \)
- (2) \( \frac{-a}{b} \)
- (3) \( \frac{b}{a} \)
- (4) \( \frac{-b}{a} \)
Question 31:
If the graph of \( y = p(x) \) does not intersect the X-axis at all, then the zeroes of \( p(x) \) are:
- (1) are equal
- (2) are unequal
- (3) don't exist
- (4) All of these
Question 32:
The number of zeroes of a polynomial \( y = p(x) \) as shown below is:
![]()
Question 33:
A pair of linear equations \( a_1 x + b_1 y + c_1 = 0 \) and \( a_2 x + b_2 y + c_2 = 0 \) is such that \( \frac{a_1}{a_2} \neq \frac{b_1}{b_2} \), then they are:
- (1) consistent
- (2) inconsistent
- (3) dependent and consistent
- (4) None of these
Question 34:
The lines \( 2x + 3y - 9 = 0 \) and \( 4x + 6y - 18 = 0 \) are:
- (1) intersecting lines
- (2) coinciding lines
- (3) parallel lines
- (4) All of these
Question 35:
If \( x - 4y - 14 = 0 \) and \( 5x - y - 13 = 0 \) will have:
- (1) unique solution
- (2) no solution
- (3) infinite number of solutions
- (4) None of these
Question 36:
The solution of \( x - 2y = 0 \) and \( 3x + 4y - 20 = 0 \) is:
- (1) \( x = 2, y = 4 \)
- (2) \( x = 4, y = 2 \)
- (3) \( x = -2, y = 4 \)
- (4) \( x = 2, y = -4 \)
Question 37:
The product of Karan’s age five years ago and his age after 9 years from now is 32. This is represented by the quadratic equation:
- (1) \( x^2 + 4x + 77 = 0 \)
- (2) \( x^2 - 4x + 77 = 0 \)
- (3) \( x^2 + 4x - 77 = 0 \)
- (4) \( x^2 - 4x - 77 = 0 \)
Question 38:
The roots of the equation \( 6x^2 - x - 2 = 0 \) are
- (1) \( \frac{2}{3}, -\frac{1}{2} \)
- (2) \( -\frac{2}{3}, \frac{1}{2} \)
- (3) \( -\frac{2}{3}, -\frac{1}{2} \)
- (4) \( \frac{2}{3}, \frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{2}{3}, -\frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution
Question 39:
The equation \( 3x^2 - 5x + 2 = 0 \) has
- (1) two real and unequal roots
- (2) two real and equal roots
- (3) no real roots
- (4) None of these
Question 40:
Find two numbers whose sum is 27 and product is 182.
- (1) \( 13, 12 \)
- (2) \( 13, 14 \)
- (3) \( 15, 12 \)
- (4) \( 11, 16 \)
Question 41:
Each one of 100 boxes is filled with 50 one-rupee coins on the first day and 25 more coins are added every next day. The Arithmetic Progression (AP) representing this situation is
- (1) \( 100, 50, 25, 10, \dots \)
- (2) \( 50, 25, 25, 25, \dots \)
- (3) \( 50, 75, 100, 125, \dots \)
- (4) \( 50, 25, 75, 100, \dots \)
Question 42:
Common difference of the AP \( 3, 1, -1, -3, \dots \) is
- (1) \( 1 \)
- (2) \( -2 \)
- (3) \( -1 \)
- (4) \( 2 \)
Question 43:
Tenth term of the AP \( 1, -1, -3, -5, \dots \) is
- (1) \( -15 \)
- (2) \( -17 \)
- (3) \( -13 \)
- (4) \( -10 \)
Question 44:
The sum of the first 22 terms of the AP \( 8, 3, -2, \dots \) is
- (1) \( -979 \)
- (2) \( 979 \)
- (3) \( 1028 \)
- (4) \( -1028 \)
Question 45:
\( D \) and \( E \) are the midpoints of sides \( AB \) and \( AC \) of a triangle \( ABC \) respectively and \( BC = 10 \) cm. If \( DE \parallel BC \), then the length of \( DE \) is
- (1) \( 3 \) cm
- (2) \( 5 \) cm
- (3) \( 4 \) cm
- (4) \( 6 \) cm
Question 46:
Which of the following are not similar figures?
- (1) Circles
- (2) Squares
- (3) Isosceles triangles
- (4) Equilateral triangles
Question 47:
If \( \triangle ODC \sim \triangle OBA \) and \( \angle BOC = 125^\circ \), then \( \angle DOC = ? \)
![]()
- (1) \( 60^\circ \)
- (2) \( 55^\circ \)
- (3) \( 50^\circ \)
- (4) \( 65^\circ \)
Question 48:
If \( M\left(\frac{p}{3}, 4\right) \) is the midpoint of the line segment joining \( A(-6, 5) \) and \( B(-4, 3) \), then \( p = ? \)
- (1) \( -10 \)
- (2) \( -8 \)
- (3) \( -9 \)
- (4) \( -15 \)
Question 49:
The distance between the points \( (2, 3) \) and \( (4, 1) \) is
- (1) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
- (2) \( 2 \)
- (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
- (4) \( 2\sqrt{3} \)
Question 50:
The coordinates of the point \( P(x, y) \) which divides the line segment joining the points \( A(x_1, y_1) \) and \( B(x_2, y_2) \) internally in the ratio \( m_1 : m_2 \) are
- (1) \( \left( \frac{m_1 x_1 + m_2 x_2}{m_1 + m_2}, \frac{m_1 y_1 + m_2 y_2}{m_1 + m_2} \right) \)
- (2) \( \left( \frac{m_1 x_2 + m_2 x_1}{m_1 + m_2}, \frac{m_1 y_2 + m_2 y_1}{m_1 + m_2} \right) \)
- (3) \( \left( \frac{m_1 x_2 - m_2 x_1}{m_1 + m_2}, \frac{m_1 y_2 - m_2 y_1}{m_1 + m_2} \right) \)
- (4) \( \left( \frac{m_1 x_2 - m_2 x_1}{m_1 - m_2}, \frac{m_1 y_2 - m_2 y_1}{m_1 - m_2} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \left( \frac{m_1 x_1 + m_2 x_2}{m_1 + m_2}, \frac{m_1 y_1 + m_2 y_2}{m_1 + m_2} \right) \)
View Solution
Question 51:
A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called an
- (1) electric charge
- (2) electric conduction
- (3) electric potential
- (4) electric circuit
Question 52:
If a net charge \( Q \) flows across any cross-section of a conductor in time \( t \), then the current \( I \) through the cross-section is
- (1) \( I = \frac{Q}{t} \)
- (2) \( I = \frac{t}{Q} \)
- (3) \( I = \frac{t^2}{Q} \)
- (4) \( I = \frac{Q^2}{t} \)
Question 53:
One coulomb is equivalent to the charge contained in nearly
- (1) \( 0.6 \times 10^{18} \) electrons
- (2) \( 1.6 \times 10^{18} \) electrons
- (3) \( 6.25 \times 10^{18} \) electrons
- (4) \( 16 \times 10^{18} \) electrons
Correct Answer: (3) \( 6.25 \times 10^{18} \) electrons
View Solution
Question 54:
Work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other in an electric circuit is called
- (1) electric potential difference
- (2) electric current
- (3) electric resistance
- (4) electric power
Question 55:
SI unit of electrical potential difference is
- (1) watt
- (2) volt
- (3) ampere
- (4) ohm
Question 56:
The device used to measure electric current in a circuit is called:
- (1) wattmeter
- (2) voltmeter
- (3) ammeter
- (4) resistor
Question 57:
In an electric circuit, three resistors \( 5 \, \Omega \), \( 10 \, \Omega \) and \( 15 \, \Omega \) are connected in series across a \( 60 \, V \) battery. Then the current flowing in the circuit is:
- (1) \( 0.5 \, A \)
- (2) \( 2 \, A \)
- (3) \( 90 \, A \)
- (4) \( 30 \, A \)
Question 58:
The heat produced in a \( 4 \, \Omega \) resistor when an electric current of \( 5 \, A \) flows in it for \( 2 \) seconds is
- (1) \( 200 \, J \)
- (2) \( 40 \, J \)
- (3) \( 50 \, J \)
- (4) \( 80 \, J \)
Question 59:
One kilowatt hour is equal to
- (1) \( 36 \times 10^6 \, J \)
- (2) \( 0.36 \times 10^6 \, J \)
- (3) \( 3.6 \times 10^{10} \, J \)
- (4) \( 3.6 \times 10^6 \, J \)
Question 60:
The power of an electric motor that takes \( 5 \, A \) electric current from a \( 220 \, V \) transmission line is:
- (1) \( 215 \, W \)
- (2) \( 44 \, W \)
- (3) \( 225 \, W \)
- (4) \( 1100 \, W \)
Question 61:
The region surrounding a magnet in which the influence of that magnet can be detected is called
- (1) magnetic length
- (2) magnetic dipole
- (3) magnetic field
- (4) magnetic pole strength
Question 62:
If the electric current through a copper wire increases, the magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point:
- (1) decreases
- (2) remains the same
- (3) increases
- (4) becomes equal to zero
Question 63:
The magnetic field at all points inside a solenoid carrying electric current:
- (1) is non-uniform
- (2) is uniform
- (3) does not exist
- (4) is always zero
Question 64:
The direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by
- (1) Fleming's left-hand rule
- (2) Newton's laws of motion
- (3) Ohm's law
- (4) Joule's law of heating
Question 65:
The magnetic field produced by a current carrying circular loop is strongest at
- (1) the center of the loop
- (2) a point outside the loop
- (3) the outer surface of the loop
- (4) every point inside the loop
Question 66:
In an electric circuit, the device used to prevent damage to the electrical appliances due to overloading is:
- (1) electromagnet
- (2) electric fuse
- (3) battery
- (4) electric cell
Question 67:
Which of the following is not an alloy?
- (1) Constantan
- (2) Manganin
- (3) Nichrome
- (4) Iron
Question 68:
Identify the wrong statement among the following:
- (1) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
- (2) Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from north pole to south pole
- (3) The magnetic field is stronger where the magnetic field lines are crowded
- (4) Magnetic field lines do not intersect with each other
Correct Answer: (2) Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from north pole to south pole
View Solution
Question 69:
SI unit of electrical resistivity is
- (1) \( \Omega \, m \)
- (2) \( \Omega / m \)
- (3) \( m / \Omega \)
- (4) \( \Omega \, m^2 \)
Question 70:
Which of the following is an insulator?
- (1) Copper
- (2) Silver
- (3) Aluminium
- (4) Rubber
Question 71:
The image formed by a plane mirror is always:
- (1) virtual and erect
- (2) virtual and inverted
- (3) real and erect
- (4) real and inverted
Question 72:
The distance between the pole and the principal focus of a spherical mirror is called:
- (1) image distance
- (2) object distance
- (3) focal length
- (4) radius of curvature
Question 73:
A diminished, virtual and erect image is formed by a
- (1) concave mirror
- (2) convex mirror
- (3) plane mirror
- (4) planoconcave mirror
Question 74:
The mirror used by a dentist to see a large image of the teeth of the patients is
- (1) concave mirror
- (2) convex mirror
- (3) plane mirror
- (4) plano-convex mirror
Question 75:
A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. This light ray
- (1) bends away from the normal
- (2) passes through the normal at the surface of separation
- (3) bends towards the normal
- (4) travels straight without bending
Question 76:
The focal length of a spherical mirror is \( 10 \, cm \). Its radius of curvature is:
- (1) \( 10 \, cm \)
- (2) \( 5 \, cm \)
- (3) \( 20 \, cm \)
- (4) \( 0.2 \, cm \)
Question 77:
An object placed between the principal focus and center of curvature of a convex lens forms an image:
- (1) beyond the center of curvature
- (2) at infinity
- (3) at the principal focus
- (4) between principal focus and center of curvature
Question 78:
The power of a lens is \( 4 \, D \). Its focal length is
- (1) \( 0.25 \, cm \)
- (2) \( 2.5 \, cm \)
- (3) \( 25 \, cm \)
- (4) \( 0.025 \, cm \)
Question 79:
If the height of the image is equal to the height of an object placed near a spherical lens, then the magnification \( m \) is
- (1) less than 1
- (2) greater than 1
- (3) equal to 1
- (4) equal to zero
Question 80:
An object is placed at a distance of \( 30 \, cm \) from a concave lens of focal length \( 20 \, cm \). The image distance is:
- (1) \( 75 \, cm \)
- (2) \( 60 \, cm \)
- (3) \( 12 \, cm \)
- (4) \( 50 \, cm \)
Question 81:
The delicate membrane having enormous number of light sensitive cells is:
- (1) optic nerve
- (2) retina
- (3) pupil
- (4) cornea
Question 82:
The amount of light entering the eye is regulated and controlled by the
- (1) pupil
- (2) optical nerve
- (3) retina
- (4) ciliary muscles
Question 83:
The minimum distance at which the objects can be seen most distinctly without strain is called
- (1) far point of the eye
- (2) near point of the eye
- (3) range of accommodation
- (4) power of accommodation
Question 84:
A person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly. The person is suffering from:
- (1) hypermetropia
- (2) myopia
- (3) presbyopia
- (4) cataract
Question 85:
The defect myopia can be corrected by using a:
- (1) convex lens
- (2) concave lens
- (3) bifocal lens
- (4) plano convex lens
Question 86:
The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called its
- (1) refraction
- (2) dispersion
- (3) scattering
- (4) spectrum
Question 87:
The formation of a rainbow in the sky involves:
- (1) reflection, refraction, scattering
- (2) refraction, dispersion, reflection
- (3) refraction, scattering, dispersion
- (4) dispersion, total internal reflection, scattering
Correct Answer: (2) refraction, dispersion, reflection
View Solution
Question 88:
Advance sunrise and delayed sunset are due to
- (1) atmospheric refraction
- (2) atmospheric scattering
- (3) atmospheric dispersion
- (4) atmospheric reflection
Question 89:
The blue colour of clear sky is due to
- (1) dispersion of light
- (2) refraction of light
- (3) scattering of light
- (4) reflection of light
Question 90:
If the speed of light in glass is \( 2 \times 10^8 \, m/s \) and the speed of light in air is \( 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s \), the refractive index of glass with respect to air is:
- (1) 6
- (2) 1
- (3) 1.5
- (4) 5
Question 91:
Why are cooking vessels made up of metals like copper and aluminium?
- (1) Because they are malleable
- (2) Because they are shiny
- (3) Because they are sonorous
- (4) Because they are good conductors of heat
Correct Answer: (4) Because they are good conductors of heat
View Solution
Question 92:
Why are metals like potassium and sodium stored in kerosene oil?
- (1) To prevent oxidation
- (2) To avoid rusting
- (3) To prevent accidental fires due to their vigorous reaction with oxygen
- (4) To preserve their shiny surface
Correct Answer: (3) To prevent accidental fires due to their vigorous reaction with oxygen
View Solution
Question 93:
What is the process of forming a thick oxide layer on aluminium called?
- (1) Galvanisation
- (2) Anodising
- (3) Electrolysis
- (4) Oxidation
Question 94:
What happens when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulfate?
- (1) No reaction takes place
- (2) Both metals react with each other to form an alloy
- (3) Iron displaces zinc and forms iron sulfate
- (4) Zinc displaces iron and forms zinc sulfate
Correct Answer: (4) Zinc displaces iron and forms zinc sulfate
View Solution
Question 95:
What type of bond is formed when a metal transfers electrons to a non-metal?
- (1) Covalent bond
- (2) Metallic bond
- (3) Ionic bond
- (4) Hydrogen bond
Question 96:
What is the name of the process where carbonate ores are converted to oxides by heating in limited air?
- (1) Calcination
- (2) Electrolysis
- (3) Roasting
- (4) Smelting
Question 97:
Which of the following is an ore of mercury?
- (1) Hematite
- (2) Cinnabar
- (3) Galena
- (4) Bauxite
Question 98:
What kind of bond exists in a molecule of nitrogen (\(N_2\))?
- (1) Single bond
- (2) Double bond
- (3) Triple bond
- (4) Ionic bond
Question 99:
What makes graphite a good conductor of electricity?
- (1) Presence of strong covalent bonds
- (2) Free electrons in its layered structure
- (3) Its rigid three-dimensional structure
- (4) Its slippery texture
Correct Answer: (2) Free electrons in its layered structure
View Solution
Question 100:
What property allows carbon to form large molecules by bonding with itself?
- (1) Valency
- (2) Electronegativity
- (3) Catenation
- (4) Ionization
Question 101:
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures are called
- (1) isotopes
- (2) homologous compounds
- (3) functional groups
- (4) isomers
Question 102:
Which series contains compounds differing by a \( -CH_2 - \) unit?
- (1) Homologous series
- (2) Isomeric series
- (3) Saturated series
- (4) Ionic series
Question 103:
Which functional group is present in carboxylic acids?
- (1) \( -CHO \)
- (2) \( -COOH \)
- (3) \( -C=O \)
- (4) \( -OH \)
Question 104:
Which substance can oxidize ethanol to ethanoic acid?
- (1) Alkaline potassium permanganate
- (2) Sodium hydroxide
- (3) Dilute hydrochloric acid
- (4) Sodium ethoxide
Correct Answer: (1) Alkaline potassium permanganate
View Solution
Question 105:
What is the product formed when magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen?
- (1) Magnesium chloride
- (2) Magnesium oxide
- (3) Magnesium carbonate
- (4) Magnesium hydroxide
Question 106:
What is the law of conservation of mass?
- (1) Energy can be created in a reaction
- (2) The number of reactants must always equal the number of products
- (3) Mass and energy are interchangeable during reactions
- (4) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction
Correct Answer: (4) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction
View Solution
Question 107:
What is the law of conservation of mass?
- (1) Energy can be created in a reaction
- (2) The number of reactants must always equal the number of products
- (3) Mass and energy are interchangeable during reactions
- (4) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction
Correct Answer: (4) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction
View Solution
Question 108:
What is the significance of writing physical states in a chemical equation?
- (1) To provide information about the physical form of substances
- (2) To show the mass of reactants and products
- (3) To balance the equation more accurately
- (4) To indicate the catalyst used in the reaction
Correct Answer: (1) To provide information about the physical form of substances
View Solution
Question 109:
What is the product formed when slaked lime reacts with carbon dioxide during whitewashing?
- (1) Calcium hydroxide
- (2) Calcium carbonate
- (3) Calcium oxide
- (4) Calcium chloride
Question 110:
Why does the iron nail become brownish when dipped in copper sulfate solution?
- (1) Copper gets deposited on the nail
- (2) Iron reacts with oxygen
- (3) The nail rusts
- (4) The nail undergoes thermal decomposition
Correct Answer: (1) Copper gets deposited on the nail
View Solution
Question 111:
What causes corrosion of iron?
- (1) Exposure to sunlight
- (2) Reaction with oxygen and moisture
- (3) Contact with acids
- (4) Both (2) and (3)
Question 112:
What is the process called when fats and oils are oxidised and their smell and taste change?
- (1) Corrosion
- (2) Rancidity
- (3) Combustion
- (4) Oxidation
Question 113:
If someone in your family is suffering from acidity after overeating, which of the following would you suggest as a remedy?
- (1) Lemon juice
- (2) Vinegar
- (3) Baking soda solution
- (4) Saltwater
Question 114:
Which of the following can be used as olfactory indicators?
- (1) Vanilla essence, turmeric and clove oil
- (2) Red cabbage, vanilla essence and onion
- (3) Turmeric, onion and litmus
- (4) Vanilla essence, onion and clove oil
Correct Answer: (4) Vanilla essence, onion and clove oil
View Solution
Question 115:
Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator in the reaction between
- (1) acid and base
- (2) acid and metal
- (3) base and metal oxide
- (4) acid and non-metallic oxide
Question 116:
Which of the following is a synthetic indicator?
- (1) Turmeric
- (2) Methyl orange
- (3) Litmus solution
- (4) Red cabbage extract
Question 117:
Why do acidic solutions conduct electricity?
- (1) Due to the presence of water molecules
- (2) Due to the presence of free electrons
- (3) Due to the presence of ions in the solution
- (4) Because acids are solid conductors
Correct Answer: (3) Due to the presence of ions in the solution
View Solution
Question 118:
Tooth decay begins when the pH of the mouth drops below:
- (1) 6.5
- (2) 5.5
- (3) 4.5
- (4) 7.0
Question 119:
What chemical is responsible for the pain caused by a bee sting?
- (1) Methanoic acid
- (2) Hydrochloric acid
- (3) Acetic acid
- (4) Sulphuric acid
Question 120:
What is the chemical formula of Plaster of Paris?
- (1) \(CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O\)
- (2) \(CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O\)
- (3) \(CaCO_3\)
- (4) \(CaOCl_2\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O\)
View Solution
Question 120:
Which property of metals describes their shiny surface?
- (1) Malleability
- (2) Ductility
- (3) Metallic luster
- (4) Conductivity
AP POLYCET 2025 Difficulty Level (Expected)
Mathematics is expected to have lengthy numerical questions but the difficulty level of the questions will be moderate. Most asked topics include Polynomials, Quadratic Equations and Progressions.
Physics is expected to be of moderate difficulty level with major focus on basic concepts. Laws of Motion, Gravitation and Heat are expected to be the most asked topics.
Chemistry will be easy and most scoring with focus on fundamental concepts. Most asked topics include Atomic Structure, States of Matter and Water.
| Subject |
Expected Difficulty |
Remarks |
| Mathematics |
Moderate |
Typically the lengthiest section; requires strong problem-solving skills. |
| Physics |
Moderate |
Conceptual understanding is key; questions are generally straightforward. |
| Chemistry |
Easy |
Often considered the easiest; focuses on fundamental concepts. |
| Overall |
Easy to Moderate |
Balanced paper; time management is crucial. |
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