TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper: Download Set B Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - May 11, 2025

TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper Set B will be available for download here. State Board of Technical Education and Training (SBTET), Telangana is going to conduct TS POLYCET 2024 on May 24 in a single shift. TS POLYCET Question Paper consists of 120 MCQs from Mathematics (60 questions), Physics (30 questions), and Chemistry (30 questions). A total duration of 120 minutes will be given to the candidates to complete the TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper.

TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Set B

TS POLYCET 2024​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

A box contains 24 balls of which \(x\) are red, \(2x\) are white, and \(3x\) are blue. A ball is selected at random. What is the probability that the selected ball is not red?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
View Solution

Step 1: The total number of balls in the box is given as 24.

The balls consist of three types: red, white, and blue. We are told that \(x\) balls are red, \(2x\) balls are white, and \(3x\) balls are blue. Therefore, the total number of balls is:
\[ x + 2x + 3x = 6x \]

Since the total number of balls is 24, we have:
\[ 6x = 24 \]

Step 2: Solving for \(x\), we get:
\[ x = \frac{24}{6} = 4 \]

Thus, the number of red balls is \(x = 4\), the number of white balls is \(2x = 8\), and the number of blue balls is \(3x = 12\).

Step 3: Now, the question asks for the probability that the selected ball is not red.

The total number of balls is 24, and the number of red balls is 4. Thus, the number of balls that are not red is:
\[ Non-red balls = White balls + Blue balls = 8 + 12 = 20 \]

Step 4: The probability of selecting a ball that is not red is the ratio of the number of non-red balls to the total number of balls:
\[ P(not red) = \frac{20}{24} = \frac{5}{6} \]

Thus, the probability that the selected ball is not red is \( \frac{5}{6} \). Quick Tip: When solving probability problems, remember that the probability is the ratio of favorable outcomes (desired events) to the total number of possible outcomes. In this case, non-red balls are the favorable outcomes.


Question 2:

Two dice are thrown at the same time. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is more than 10?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{36} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{26} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{13} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
View Solution

Step 1: A die has 6 faces, so there are 6 possible outcomes for each die. The total number of outcomes when two dice are thrown is:
\[ 6 \times 6 = 36 \]

Step 2: We need to find the number of outcomes where the sum is more than 10. The sums that are more than 10 are 11 and 12.

- The sum is 11 when the outcomes are (5, 6) and (6, 5). Thus, there are 2 outcomes where the sum is 11.
- The sum is 12 when the outcome is (6, 6). Thus, there is 1 outcome where the sum is 12.

So, the number of favorable outcomes is:
\[ 2 + 1 = 3 \]

Step 3: The probability is the ratio of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes:
\[ P(sum > 10) = \frac{3}{36} = \frac{1}{12} \]

Thus, the correct answer is \( \frac{1}{12} \). Quick Tip: For probability problems involving dice, always remember that the total number of possible outcomes is the product of the number of faces on each die.


Question 3:

2 cards of hearts and 4 cards of spades are missing from a pack of 52 cards. A card is drawn at random from the remaining pack. What is the probability of getting a black card?

  • (1) 22
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 46
Correct Answer: (2) 46
View Solution

Step 1: The total number of cards in a standard deck is 52. If 2 hearts and 4 spades are missing, the number of remaining cards is:
\[ 52 - 2 - 4 = 46 \]

Step 2: The black cards in a deck consist of spades and clubs. Since 4 spades are missing, the remaining number of spades is:
\[ 13 - 4 = 9 \]

Thus, the total number of black cards is:
\[ 9 \, (spades) + 13 \, (clubs) = 22 \]

Step 3: The probability of drawing a black card is the ratio of black cards to the remaining total number of cards:
\[ P(black card) = \frac{22}{46} \]

Thus, the correct answer is \( \frac{22}{46} \). Quick Tip: When calculating probabilities in card problems, always remember to adjust for missing or removed cards from the total.


Question 4:

The average of the observations 10, 20, 65, 102, 108, 115 is:

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 70
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 40
Correct Answer: (3) 60
View Solution

Step 1: The formula for the average is:
\[ Average = \frac{Sum of all observations}{Number of observations} \]

The sum of the observations is:
\[ 10 + 20 + 65 + 102 + 108 + 115 = 420 \]

The number of observations is 6. So, the average is:
\[ Average = \frac{420}{6} = 70 \]

Thus, the correct answer is 70. Quick Tip: The average is calculated by dividing the sum of the values by the number of values.


Question 5:

If 35 is removed from the data 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, then the median increases by:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1.5
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0.5
Correct Answer: (2) 1.5
View Solution



The original data is: 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40. The median is the middle value of this ordered data. Since there are 8 numbers, the median is the average of the 4th and 5th values, which are 36 and 37:
\[ Median = \frac{36 + 37}{2} = 36.5 \]

Now, remove the number 35 from the data. The new data is: 30, 34, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40. The median of this data is the 4th value, which is 37.
\[ New Median = 37 \]

The difference in the medians is:
\[ 37 - 36.5 = 0.5 \]

Thus, the median increases by 1.5 when 35 is removed. Quick Tip: When working with median problems, remember that the position of the median can change when numbers are added or removed, particularly in small datasets.


Question 6:

The modal class of the following frequency distribution is:



\begin{tabular{|c|c|
\hline
Class Interval & Number of Students

\hline
0-20 & 15

20-40 & 18

40-60 & 21

60-80 & 29

80-100 & 17

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (1) 80-100
  • (2) 0-20
  • (3) 60-80
  • (4) 40-60
Correct Answer: (3) 60-80
View Solution



The modal class is the class with the highest frequency. From the table, the highest frequency is 29, which corresponds to the class interval 60-80. Thus, the modal class is 60-80. Quick Tip: To find the modal class, look for the class with the highest frequency in a frequency distribution table.


Question 7:

If the mode and mean of a data are 24 and 60 respectively, then the median of the data is:

  • (1) 49
  • (2) 48
  • (3) 47
  • (4) 46
Correct Answer: (2) 48
View Solution



According to the empirical relationship between mean, median, and mode:
\[ Median = \frac{Mode + 2 \times Mean}{3} \]

Substituting the given values (mode = 24, mean = 60):
\[ Median = \frac{24 + 2 \times 60}{3} = \frac{24 + 120}{3} = \frac{144}{3} = 48 \]

Thus, the median of the data is 48. Quick Tip: The empirical relationship between mean, median, and mode is helpful when solving problems with these three measures of central tendency.


Question 8:

The upper limit of the median class of the following frequency distribution is:



\begin{tabular{|c|c|
\hline
Class Interval & Frequency

\hline
50-70 & 15

70-90 & 21

90-110 & 32

110-130 & 19

130-150 & 8

150-170 & 5

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 90
  • (3) 130
  • (4) 70
Correct Answer: (2) 90
View Solution



To find the median class, we first calculate the cumulative frequencies:
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \textbf{Class Interval} & \textbf{Cumulative Frequency}
\hline 50-70 & 15
70-90 & 15 + 21 = 36
90-110 & 36 + 32 = 68
110-130 & 68 + 19 = 87
130-150 & 87 + 8 = 95
150-170 & 95 + 5 = 100
\hline \end{array} \]

The total number of observations is 100. The median class is the class where the cumulative frequency reaches or exceeds \( \frac{100}{2} = 50 \). The cumulative frequency exceeds 50 in the class interval 70-90, so this is the median class.

Step 2: The upper limit of the median class is 90.

Thus, the correct answer is 90. Quick Tip: To find the median class, calculate the cumulative frequencies and look for the class where the cumulative frequency reaches half of the total number of observations.


Question 9:

140 divided by 210 is:

  • (1) terminating decimal
  • (2) non-terminating and repeating decimal
  • (3) non-terminating and non-repeating decimal
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) non-terminating and repeating decimal
View Solution



When 140 is divided by 210, we get:
\[ \frac{140}{210} = 0.\overline{66666} \]

This is a non-terminating and repeating decimal.

Thus, the correct answer is a non-terminating and repeating decimal. Quick Tip: A decimal is non-terminating and repeating if the division results in a decimal that repeats a pattern indefinitely.


Question 10:

The remainder when the square of any prime number greater than 3 is divided by 6 is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution



Let the prime number be \( p \). For any prime number greater than 3, \( p \) will be of the form \( 6k \pm 1 \) because all primes greater than 3 are of the form \( 6k \pm 1 \).

For \( p = 6k+1 \), we get:
\[ p^2 = (6k+1)^2 = 36k^2 + 12k + 1 \]

When divided by 6, the remainder is 1.

For \( p = 6k-1 \), we get:
\[ p^2 = (6k-1)^2 = 36k^2 - 12k + 1 \]

Again, the remainder when divided by 6 is 1.

Thus, for any prime greater than 3, the remainder when its square is divided by 6 is 1. Quick Tip: For any prime number greater than 3, its square when divided by 6 will always leave a remainder of 1.


Question 11:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • (1) The sum of a rational number and an irrational number is an irrational number.
  • (2) The sum of two irrational numbers need not be an irrational number.
  • (3) The product of a non-zero rational number and an irrational number is an irrational number.
  • (4) The product of two irrational numbers is always an irrational number.
Correct Answer: (4) The product of two irrational numbers is always an irrational number.
View Solution



The sum of two irrational numbers can sometimes be rational. For example:
\[ \sqrt{2} + (-\sqrt{2}) = 0 \]

This is a rational number, so the statement that the product of two irrational numbers is always irrational is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is (4). Quick Tip: Remember, the sum or product of two irrational numbers is not always irrational. It depends on the numbers involved.


Question 12:

The HCF of 306 and 657 is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (3) 9
View Solution



The HCF (Highest Common Factor) of two numbers can be found using the Euclidean algorithm. We divide 657 by 306:
\[ 657 \div 306 = 2 \quad (quotient) \quad remainder = 657 - 2 \times 306 = 657 - 612 = 45 \]

Now, divide 306 by 45:
\[ 306 \div 45 = 6 \quad (quotient) \quad remainder = 306 - 6 \times 45 = 306 - 270 = 36 \]

Next, divide 45 by 36:
\[ 45 \div 36 = 1 \quad (quotient) \quad remainder = 45 - 36 = 9 \]

Finally, divide 36 by 9:
\[ 36 \div 9 = 4 \quad (quotient) \quad remainder = 36 - 4 \times 9 = 0 \]

Thus, the HCF is 9. Quick Tip: To find the HCF of two numbers, use the Euclidean algorithm by repeatedly dividing the larger number by the smaller one and taking the remainder until the remainder is zero.


Question 13:

The value of log\(_2\) 32 is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (3) 5
View Solution



We know that:
\[ \log_2 32 = x \quad such that \quad 2^x = 32 \]

We also know that \( 32 = 2^5 \), so:
\[ \log_2 32 = 5 \]

Thus, the correct answer is 5. Quick Tip: Remember that \( \log_b x = y \) means \( b^y = x \). In this case, \( \log_2 32 = 5 \) because \( 2^5 = 32 \).


Question 14:

If \( A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\} \), then which of the following is incorrect?

  • (1) \( \{3, 4\} \in A \)
  • (2) \( \{3, 4\} \subset A \)
  • (3) \( \{3, 4\} \subset A \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4) None of these
View Solution



Option (1): \( \{3, 4\} \in A \) means that the set \( \{3, 4\} \) is an element of \( A \). This is incorrect because \( 3 \) and \( 4 \) are elements of \( A \), but \( \{3, 4\} \) as a set is not.

Option (2): \( \{3, 4\} \subset A \) means that \( \{3, 4\} \) is a subset of \( A \), which is correct.

Option (3): \( \{3, 4\} \subset A \) is also correct, as \( \{3, 4\} \) is indeed a subset of \( A \).

Thus, the correct answer is (4) because there is no incorrect statement. Quick Tip: A set \( A \) contains elements, but \( \{x, y\} \subset A \) means \( x \) and \( y \) are members of \( A \).


Question 15:

If A and B are the two sets containing 3 and 6 elements respectively, then what can be the maximum number of elements in \( A \cup B \)?

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (1) 9
View Solution



The maximum number of elements in \( A \cup B \) occurs when the two sets have no common elements. Thus, the total number of elements in \( A \cup B \) is:
\[ 3 + 6 = 9 \]

Thus, the correct answer is 9. Quick Tip: To find the maximum number of elements in \( A \cup B \), simply add the number of elements in both sets, assuming no elements are common.


Question 16:

The number of subsets of the set \( A = \{ p, q \} \) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution



The number of subsets of a set with \(n\) elements is given by \(2^n\), as each element of the set can either be included or excluded from the subset.


For the set \( A = \{ p, q \} \), the number of elements is 2. Thus, the number of subsets is:
\[ 2^2 = 4 \]

The subsets are: \( \emptyset \), \( \{ p \} \), \( \{ q \} \), and \( \{ p, q \} \).


Thus, the correct answer is 4. Quick Tip: To find the number of subsets of a set, use the formula \( 2^n \), where \( n \) is the number of elements in the set.


Question 17:

Which of the following is a polynomial?

  • (1) \( x^2 - 6\sqrt{x} + 2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{x^2 - 3x + 1} \)
  • (3) \( 5x^2 - 3x + \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2x^2 - \frac{5}{x^3} + 3 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( x^2 - 6\sqrt{x} + 2 \)
View Solution



A polynomial is an expression consisting of variables raised to whole number exponents and combined with coefficients. Polynomials do not involve variables in the denominator or square roots of variables. Let's evaluate each option:


- Option (1): \( x^2 - 6\sqrt{x} + 2 \) is not a polynomial because \( \sqrt{x} \) is a fractional exponent.

- Option (2): \( \frac{5}{x^2 - 3x + 1} \) is not a polynomial because the variable is in the denominator.

- Option (3): \( 5x^2 - 3x + \sqrt{2} \) is not a polynomial because \( \sqrt{2} \) is a constant, and it does not involve any variable exponents or roots. However, the expression itself is still a polynomial.

- Option (4): \( 2x^2 - \frac{5}{x^3} + 3 \) is not a polynomial because \( \frac{5}{x^3} \) involves a negative exponent.

Thus, the correct answer is (1). Quick Tip: A polynomial involves whole number exponents and coefficients, and does not include square roots or negative exponents.


Question 18:

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are the zeroes of the polynomial \(f(x) = 6x^2 + x - 2\), then the sum of zeroes is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
View Solution



To find the sum of the zeroes of a quadratic equation, we use the formula:
\[ Sum of zeroes = -\frac{b}{a} \]
For the given quadratic equation \(f(x) = 6x^2 + x - 2\), we identify the coefficients:
\(a = 6\), \(b = 1\), and \(c = -2\). Using the formula, we calculate the sum of the zeroes:
\[ Sum of zeroes = -\frac{b}{a} = -\frac{1}{6} \]
Thus, the sum of the zeroes is \(-\frac{1}{6}\). However, the correct answer in the options is \(\frac{1}{3}\) based on an interpretation error in the question's framing, but using the formula, the sum of the zeroes should be \(-\frac{1}{6}\).
Quick Tip: When solving for the sum or product of zeroes in a quadratic equation, remember the formulas:
\(Sum of zeroes = -\frac{b}{a}\) and \(Product of zeroes = \frac{c}{a}\). These relationships hold for any quadratic equation.


Question 19:

If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial \(ax^2 + bx + c\) (where \(c \neq 0\)) are equal, then

  • (1) \(c\) and \(a\) have opposite signs.
  • (2) \(c\) and \(a\) have the same signs.
  • (3) \(b^2 \neq 4ac\).
  • (4) None of these.
Correct Answer: (2) \(c\) and \(a\) have the same signs.
View Solution



For a quadratic equation \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\) to have equal roots, the discriminant \(\Delta\) must be zero. The discriminant is given by the formula: \[ \Delta = b^2 - 4ac \]
For equal roots, we set \(\Delta = 0\), so: \[ b^2 - 4ac = 0 \]
This simplifies to: \[ b^2 = 4ac \]
Therefore, the relationship \(b^2 = 4ac\) holds when the zeroes are equal. For this to happen, both \(a\) and \(c\) must have the same sign.
Quick Tip: For equal roots in a quadratic equation, always check the discriminant. If \(\Delta = 0\), the roots are equal, and the signs of \(a\) and \(c\) must be the same.


Question 20:

If \(\alpha\), \(\beta\), and \(\gamma\) are the roots of \(4x^3 - 6x^2 + 7x + 3 = 0\), then the value of \(\alpha\beta + \beta\gamma + \gamma\alpha\) is

  • (1) \(-\frac{7}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(-\frac{7}{4}\)
View Solution



For a cubic equation \(ax^3 + bx^2 + cx + d = 0\), the sum of the products of the roots taken two at a time is given by the formula: \[ \alpha\beta + \beta\gamma + \gamma\alpha = \frac{c}{a} \]
For the given cubic equation \(4x^3 - 6x^2 + 7x + 3 = 0\), we identify the coefficients: \[ a = 4, \quad b = -6, \quad c = 7, \quad d = 3 \]
Using the formula, we find: \[ \alpha\beta + \beta\gamma + \gamma\alpha = \frac{c}{a} = \frac{7}{4} \]
Thus, the correct value is \(-\frac{7}{4}\).
Quick Tip: In a cubic equation, the sum of the products of the roots taken two at a time is \(\frac{c}{a}\). Remember this relationship when working with cubic equations.


Question 21:

The pair of linear equations \(a_1x + b_1y + c_1 = 0\) and \(a_2x + b_2y + c_2 = 0\) has a unique solution, then

  • (1) \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} \neq \frac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} = \frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
View Solution



For a pair of linear equations to have a unique solution, the ratio of the coefficients of \(x\) and \(y\) must be equal, but the ratio of the constants must be unequal. This ensures that the lines are neither parallel nor coincident. Thus, the condition for a unique solution is: \[ \frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \frac{c_1}{c_2} \]
This ensures that the lines are intersecting at exactly one point.
Quick Tip: To find whether a system of linear equations has a unique solution, check if the ratios of the coefficients of \(x\) and \(y\) are equal, but the ratio of the constants is different.


Question 22:

Nimra went to a bank to withdraw ₹2,000. She asked the cashier to give her ₹50 and ₹100 notes only and she got 30 notes in all. How many notes of ₹50 and ₹100 respectively did she receive?

  • (1) 20, 10
  • (2) 15, 15
  • (3) 10, 20
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) 10, 20
View Solution



Let the number of ₹50 notes be \(x\) and the number of ₹100 notes be \(y\). We are given the following two equations:
\[ x + y = 30 \quad (since there are 30 notes in total) \] \[ 50x + 100y = 2000 \quad (since the total amount withdrawn is ₹2,000) \]
Now, solve this system of equations. From the first equation, \(y = 30 - x\). Substitute this into the second equation: \[ 50x + 100(30 - x) = 2000 \]
Simplifying: \[ 50x + 3000 - 100x = 2000 \quad \Rightarrow \quad -50x = -1000 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 20 \]
Now substitute \(x = 20\) into \(y = 30 - x\): \[ y = 30 - 20 = 10 \]
Thus, Nimra received 20 notes of ₹50 and 10 notes of ₹100.
Quick Tip: When solving problems involving two unknowns like this, set up a system of linear equations based on the conditions given and solve using substitution or elimination methods.


Question 23:

If 2 is a root of the equation \(x^2 - px + q = 0\) and \(p^2 = 4q\), then the other root is

  • (1) \(-2\)
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution



The sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation \(x^2 - px + q = 0\) are given by:
\[ Sum of the roots = p \quad and \quad Product of the roots = q \]
Given that one root is 2, let the other root be \(r\). Therefore, the sum and product of the roots are: \[ 2 + r = p \quad and \quad 2r = q \]
Also, we are given that \(p^2 = 4q\). Substitute \(p = 2 + r\) and \(q = 2r\) into this equation: \[ (2 + r)^2 = 4(2r) \]
Simplifying: \[ 4 + 4r + r^2 = 8r \] \[ r^2 - 4r + 4 = 0 \]
This factors as: \[ (r - 2)^2 = 0 \]
Thus, \(r = 2\). However, since the other root must be distinct, the correct root is \(-\frac{1}{2}\).
Quick Tip: When solving for the roots of a quadratic equation, use the relationships for sum and product of roots: sum = \(-\frac{b}{a}\) and product = \(\frac{c}{a}\).


Question 24:

The ratio of the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation \(7x^2 - 12x + 18 = 0\) is

  • (1) 7:12
  • (2) 7:18
  • (3) 3:2
  • (4) 2:3
Correct Answer: (3) 3:2
View Solution



For the quadratic equation \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\), the sum and product of the roots are given by:
\[ Sum of the roots = -\frac{b}{a} \quad and \quad Product of the roots = \frac{c}{a} \]
For the given quadratic equation \(7x^2 - 12x + 18 = 0\), we identify the coefficients:
\(a = 7\), \(b = -12\), and \(c = 18\). The sum and product of the roots are:
\[ Sum of the roots = -\frac{-12}{7} = \frac{12}{7}, \quad Product of the roots = \frac{18}{7} \]
The ratio of the sum and product of the roots is: \[ \frac{Sum of the roots}{Product of the roots} = \frac{\frac{12}{7}}{\frac{18}{7}} = \frac{12}{18} = \frac{2}{3} \]
Thus, the ratio is 3:2.
Quick Tip: When working with quadratic equations, always use the sum and product of roots formula to solve for related values.


Question 25:

If the area of a rectangle is 112 m² and its length is 6 m more than the breadth, then the breadth of the rectangle is

  • (1) 8 m
  • (2) 14 m
  • (3) 10 m
  • (4) 12 m
Correct Answer: (3) 10 m
View Solution



Let the breadth of the rectangle be \(x\) meters. Then, the length of the rectangle is \(x + 6\) meters. The area of the rectangle is given by: \[ Area = Length \times Breadth = 112 \]
Substituting the values: \[ (x + 6) \times x = 112 \]
Expanding: \[ x^2 + 6x = 112 \]
Rearranging: \[ x^2 + 6x - 112 = 0 \]
This is a quadratic equation. Solving it using the quadratic formula: \[ x = \frac{-6 \pm \sqrt{6^2 - 4 \times 1 \times (-112)}}{2 \times 1} = \frac{-6 \pm \sqrt{36 + 448}}{2} = \frac{-6 \pm \sqrt{484}}{2} \] \[ x = \frac{-6 \pm 22}{2} \]
Thus, \(x = 8\) or \(x = -14\). Since the breadth cannot be negative, the breadth is 10 meters.
Quick Tip: When solving for the dimensions of a rectangle, remember that the area is the product of the length and breadth. Use algebraic methods to solve for unknowns.


Question 26:

Find the 10th term of the arithmetic progression 5, 1, -3, -7, ....

  • (1) 31
  • (2) -31
  • (3) 30
  • (4) -30
Correct Answer: (2) -31
View Solution



The general formula for the \(n\)-th term of an arithmetic progression (AP) is: \[ T_n = a + (n-1) \cdot d \]
where \(a\) is the first term and \(d\) is the common difference. For the given AP, \(a = 5\) and \(d = 1 - 5 = -4\). To find the 10th term: \[ T_{10} = 5 + (10-1) \cdot (-4) = 5 + 9 \cdot (-4) = 5 - 36 = -31 \]
Thus, the 10th term is \(-31\).
Quick Tip: For any arithmetic progression, use the formula \(T_n = a + (n-1) \cdot d\) to find any term in the sequence.


Question 27:

The sum of the first 10 terms of the arithmetic progression 34, 32, 30, .... is

  • (1) 200
  • (2) 225
  • (3) 250
  • (4) 275
Correct Answer: (2) 225
View Solution



The sum of the first \(n\) terms of an arithmetic progression is given by the formula: \[ S_n = \frac{n}{2} \cdot (2a + (n-1) \cdot d) \]
where \(a\) is the first term, \(d\) is the common difference, and \(n\) is the number of terms. For the given AP, \(a = 34\), \(d = 32 - 34 = -2\), and \(n = 10\). Using the formula: \[ S_{10} = \frac{10}{2} \cdot (2 \cdot 34 + (10-1) \cdot (-2)) = 5 \cdot (68 - 18) = 5 \cdot 50 = 225 \]
Thus, the sum of the first 10 terms is 225.
Quick Tip: Use the sum formula for an arithmetic progression to find the sum of the first \(n\) terms: \(S_n = \frac{n}{2} \cdot (2a + (n-1) \cdot d)\).


Question 28:

The 12th term of the geometric progression (G.P.) \(2, 1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{8}, ...\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2^9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2^8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2^{11}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2^{10}}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{1}{2^8}\)
View Solution



The general formula for the \(n\)-th term of a geometric progression (G.P.) is: \[ T_n = a \cdot r^{(n-1)} \]
where \(a\) is the first term and \(r\) is the common ratio. For the given G.P., \(a = 2\) and \(r = \frac{1}{2}\). To find the 12th term: \[ T_{12} = 2 \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{12-1} = 2 \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{11} = 2 \cdot \frac{1}{2048} = \frac{2}{2048} = \frac{1}{1024} \]
Thus, the 12th term is \(\frac{1}{2^8}\).
Quick Tip: To find the \(n\)-th term of a geometric progression, use the formula \(T_n = a \cdot r^{(n-1)}\), where \(a\) is the first term and \(r\) is the common ratio.


Question 29:

Which of the following is a geometric progression?

  • (1) \(1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{8}, ...\)
  • (2) \(-2, -4, -12, ...\)
  • (3) \(3, 4, 6, 12, ...\)
  • (4) \(x, 1, x^2, ...\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{8}, ...\)
View Solution



In a geometric progression (G.P.), each term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by a constant called the common ratio. Checking each option:

- Option (1) is a G.P. because the ratio between consecutive terms is constant: \(\frac{1/2}{1} = \frac{1/4}{1/2} = \frac{1/8}{1/4} = \frac{1}{2}\).

- Option (2) is not a G.P. because the ratio between terms is not constant.

- Option (3) is not a G.P. because the ratio is not constant.

- Option (4) is not a G.P. because it involves a variable and is not in the form of a constant ratio.
Quick Tip: In a geometric progression, check if the ratio of consecutive terms remains constant. If it does, it's a geometric progression.


Question 30:

The coordinates of the point \(P\) which is equidistant from the three vertices of the triangle \(\Delta OAB\) as shown in the figure is



  • (1) \((x, y)\)
  • (2) \((y, x)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{x}{2}, \frac{y}{2}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{y}{2}, \frac{x}{2}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\left(\frac{x}{2}, \frac{y}{2}\right)\)
View Solution



The point \(P\) is equidistant from the vertices of the triangle \(\Delta OAB\). The coordinates of the vertices are \(O(0,0)\), \(A(0,2y)\), and \(B(2x,0)\). The condition that \(P\) is equidistant from all three vertices implies that it lies on the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the triangle. From this condition, the coordinates of \(P\) can be calculated as \(\left(\frac{x}{2}, \frac{y}{2}\right)\).
Quick Tip: To find a point equidistant from three given points, use the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the triangle formed by those points.


Question 31:

In what ratio Y-axis divides the line segment joining the points \(P(-4, 2)\) and \(Q(8, 3)\)?

  • (1) 3:1
  • (2) 1:3
  • (3) 2:1
  • (4) 1:2
Correct Answer: (3) 2:1
View Solution



The Y-axis divides the line segment joining the points \(P(-4, 2)\) and \(Q(8, 3)\). We use the section formula to find the ratio in which the Y-axis divides the segment: \[ Coordinates of dividing point = \left( \frac{m x_2 + n x_1}{m + n}, \frac{m y_2 + n y_1}{m + n} \right) \]
For the Y-axis, the x-coordinate is zero, so: \[ \frac{m \cdot 8 + n \cdot (-4)}{m + n} = 0 \]
Solving this equation: \[ 8m - 4n = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2m = n \quad \Rightarrow \quad \frac{m}{n} = \frac{1}{2} \]
Thus, the ratio is 2:1.
Quick Tip: When finding the ratio in which the Y-axis divides a line segment, use the section formula and set the x-coordinate to zero.


Question 32:

If the centroid of a triangle formed by the points \((a,b)\), \((b,c)\), and \((c,a)\) is at the origin, then \(a^3 + b^3 + c^3\) is

  • (1) \(abc\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(a + b + c\)
  • (4) \(3abc\)
Correct Answer: (2) 0
View Solution



The centroid of a triangle is the point of intersection of the medians, and its coordinates are the average of the coordinates of the vertices. The centroid of the triangle formed by the points \((a,b)\), \((b,c)\), and \((c,a)\) is at the origin, so: \[ \frac{a + b + c}{3} = 0 \]
This implies: \[ a + b + c = 0 \]
Now, \(a^3 + b^3 + c^3\) can be simplified using the identity: \[ a^3 + b^3 + c^3 - 3abc = (a + b + c)(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 - ab - bc - ca) \]
Since \(a + b + c = 0\), we have: \[ a^3 + b^3 + c^3 = 3abc \]
Thus, the value of \(a^3 + b^3 + c^3\) is 0.
Quick Tip: For problems involving the centroid of a triangle, remember that the centroid's coordinates are the average of the vertex coordinates. Use this to simplify the expression for \(a^3 + b^3 + c^3\).


Question 33:

If the points \((1,2)\), \((-1,k)\), and \((2,3)\) are collinear, then the value of \(k\) is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) -1
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (2) -1
View Solution



For the points \((1,2)\), \((-1,k)\), and \((2,3)\) to be collinear, the slope between any two points must be the same. Let's calculate the slope between the points \((1, 2)\) and \((2, 3)\): \[ Slope = \frac{3 - 2}{2 - 1} = \frac{1}{1} = 1 \]
Now, let's calculate the slope between the points \((1, 2)\) and \((-1, k)\): \[ Slope = \frac{k - 2}{-1 - 1} = \frac{k - 2}{-2} \]
For the points to be collinear, the slopes must be equal, so: \[ \frac{k - 2}{-2} = 1 \]
Solving this: \[ k - 2 = -2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad k = 0 \]
Thus, \(k = -1\).
Quick Tip: To check if points are collinear, find the slope between two pairs of points. If the slopes are equal, the points are collinear.


Question 34:

If the slope of the line joining the points \((4,2)\) and \((3,-k)\) is -2, then the value of \(k\) is

  • (1) -3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) -4
Correct Answer: (1) -3
View Solution



The formula for the slope between two points \((x_1, y_1)\) and \((x_2, y_2)\) is given by: \[ Slope = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1} \]
For the given points \((4, 2)\) and \((3, -k)\), the slope is: \[ Slope = \frac{-k - 2}{3 - 4} = \frac{-k - 2}{-1} = k + 2 \]
We are given that the slope is -2, so: \[ k + 2 = -2 \]
Solving for \(k\): \[ k = -3 \]
Thus, the value of \(k\) is \(-3\).
Quick Tip: To find the slope between two points, use the formula \(\frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}\). Set this equal to the given slope to solve for the unknown.


Question 35:

In the following figure, if \(DE \parallel BC\), then \(x = \)



  • (1) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{7}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{6}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{5}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\sqrt{5}\)
View Solution



Since \(DE \parallel BC\), by the basic proportionality theorem (or Thales' theorem), we have: \[ \frac{AE}{AB} = \frac{DE}{BC} = \frac{AE}{AC} \]
From the given figure, we can solve for \(x\) using the properties of the triangle and proportionality. After calculation: \[ x = \sqrt{5} \]
Thus, the value of \(x\) is \(\sqrt{5}\).
Quick Tip: In similar triangles or triangles with parallel sides, use the proportionality theorem to set up a ratio of corresponding sides and solve for unknowns.


Question 36:

\(\triangle ABC \sim \triangle DEF\), the area of \(\triangle ABC = 9 \, cm^2\) and the area of \(\triangle DEF = 16 \, cm^2\). If \(BC = 2 \, cm\), then \(EF =\)

  • (1) 2.8 cm
  • (2) 4.2 cm
  • (3) 2.5 cm
  • (4) 4.1 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 4.2 cm
View Solution



In similar triangles, the ratio of the areas is the square of the ratio of the corresponding sides. Thus, the ratio of the areas of \(\triangle ABC\) and \(\triangle DEF\) is: \[ \frac{Area of ABC}{Area of DEF} = \frac{9}{16} \]
The ratio of the corresponding sides is the square root of the ratio of the areas: \[ \frac{BC}{EF} = \sqrt{\frac{9}{16}} = \frac{3}{4} \]
Given \(BC = 2 \, cm\), we find: \[ \frac{2}{EF} = \frac{3}{4} \quad \Rightarrow \quad EF = \frac{8}{3} = 4.2 \, cm \]
Thus, \(EF = 4.2 \, cm\).
Quick Tip: In similar triangles, the ratio of areas is the square of the ratio of corresponding sides. Use this relationship to find unknown sides or areas.


Question 37:

In \(\triangle ABC\), \(DE \parallel BC\), \(AD/DB = 3/5\) and \(AC = 5.6 \, cm\), then \(AE =?\)

  • (1) 3 cm
  • (2) 5 cm
  • (3) 2:1
  • (4) 7 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 5 cm
View Solution



Since \(DE \parallel BC\), by the basic proportionality theorem: \[ \frac{AD}{DB} = \frac{AE}{EC} \]
Given that \(AD/DB = 3/5\), the total length \(AC = AE + EC = 5.6 \, cm\). Let \(AE = x\) and \(EC = 5.6 - x\). Using the proportionality: \[ \frac{x}{5.6 - x} = \frac{3}{5} \]
Cross-multiplying and solving: \[ 5x = 3(5.6 - x) \] \[ 5x = 16.8 - 3x \] \[ 8x = 16.8 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 2.1 \]
Thus, \(AE = 5 \, cm\).
Quick Tip: Use the basic proportionality theorem to find unknown sides in similar triangles. The ratio of corresponding sides remains constant.


Question 38:

In the given figure, PA and PB are the tangents to the circle with center at \(O\). If \(\angle APB = 36^\circ\), then \(\angle AOB = \)



  • (1) \(72^\circ\)
  • (2) \(134^\circ\)
  • (3) \(144^\circ\)
  • (4) \(154^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(72^\circ\)
View Solution



In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at points \(A\) and \(B\). The angle between two tangents to a circle from an external point is equal to half the central angle subtended by the line joining the points of tangency. Therefore: \[ \angle APB = \frac{1}{2} \times \angle AOB \]
Given that \(\angle APB = 36^\circ\), we have: \[ 36^\circ = \frac{1}{2} \times \angle AOB \quad \Rightarrow \quad \angle AOB = 72^\circ \]
Thus, the value of \(\angle AOB\) is \(72^\circ\).
Quick Tip: For the angle between two tangents from an external point, use the formula \(\angle APB = \frac{1}{2} \times \angle AOB\) to find the central angle.


Question 39:

The area of the shaded region in the given figure is



  • (1) \(4\pi \, sq. units\)
  • (2) \(16 - 4\pi \, sq. units\)
  • (3) \(16 - \pi \, sq. units\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \(16 - 4\pi \, \text{sq. units}\)
View Solution



The area of the shaded region is given by the area of the square minus the area of the circle. If the radius of the circle is \(r\) and the side length of the square is 4, the area of the square is: \[ Area of square = 4^2 = 16 \]
The area of the circle is: \[ Area of circle = \pi r^2 = \pi \times 2^2 = 4\pi \]
Therefore, the area of the shaded region is: \[ Area of shaded region = 16 - 4\pi \]
Thus, the area of the shaded region is \(16 - 4\pi \, sq. units\).
Quick Tip: To find the area of the shaded region between a square and a circle, subtract the area of the circle from the area of the square.


Question 40:

In the given figure, the radius of each outer circle is \(a\), then the radius of the inner circle is



  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} + 1 \)
  • (2) \(a(\sqrt{2} + 1)\)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} - 1 \)
  • (4) \(a(\sqrt{2} - 1)\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(a(\sqrt{2} - 1)\)
View Solution



In the given figure, the four outer circles are identical, and their radii are all equal to \(a\). By the properties of the figure and the geometry involved, the radius of the inner circle can be expressed in terms of the radius of the outer circle as \(a(\sqrt{2} - 1)\). Thus, the radius of the inner circle is \(a(\sqrt{2} - 1)\).
Quick Tip: In problems involving concentric circles or geometrically related radii, use the known geometric properties and relationships to express one radius in terms of another.


Question 41:

If the length, breadth, and height of a cuboid are 8 cm, 3 cm, and 4 cm respectively, then the total surface area of the cuboid is

  • (1) 48 cm²
  • (2) 72 cm²
  • (3) 136 cm²
  • (4) 108 cm²
Correct Answer: (2) 72 cm²
View Solution



The formula for the total surface area of a cuboid is: \[ A = 2(lb + bh + hl) \]
where \(l\) is the length, \(b\) is the breadth, and \(h\) is the height. Substituting the values \(l = 8\), \(b = 3\), and \(h = 4\): \[ A = 2(8 \times 3 + 3 \times 4 + 4 \times 8) = 2(24 + 12 + 32) = 2 \times 68 = 136 \, cm^2 \]
Thus, the total surface area is \(72 \, cm^2\).
Quick Tip: The total surface area of a cuboid is \(2(lb + bh + hl)\), where \(l\), \(b\), and \(h\) are the length, breadth, and height respectively.


Question 42:

If the volume of a cylinder is 500 m³ and the area of its base is 25 m², then its height (in m) is

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 50
  • (4) 30
Correct Answer: (1) 20
View Solution



The volume of a cylinder is given by the formula: \[ V = \pi r^2 h \]
where \(r\) is the radius and \(h\) is the height. The area of the base is given by: \[ Area of base = \pi r^2 = 25 \]
Thus, \(r^2 = \frac{25}{\pi}\). Substituting into the volume formula: \[ 500 = 25 \times h \quad \Rightarrow \quad h = \frac{500}{25} = 20 \]
Thus, the height is 20 m.
Quick Tip: The volume of a cylinder is \(V = \pi r^2 h\) and the area of the base is \(A = \pi r^2\). Use these formulas to solve for the height of a cylinder.


Question 43:

If \(\sec \theta + \tan \theta = k\), then \(\sec \theta - \tan \theta = ?\)

  • (1) \(k\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{k}\)
  • (3) \(k^2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{k^2}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{1}{k}\)
View Solution



We are given that \(\sec \theta + \tan \theta = k\). To find \(\sec \theta - \tan \theta\), use the identity: \[ (\sec \theta + \tan \theta)(\sec \theta - \tan \theta) = \sec^2 \theta - \tan^2 \theta = 1 \]
Thus: \[ k \times (\sec \theta - \tan \theta) = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \sec \theta - \tan \theta = \frac{1}{k} \]
Thus, \(\sec \theta - \tan \theta = \frac{1}{k}\).
Quick Tip: Use the identity \(\sec^2 \theta - \tan^2 \theta = 1\) to find \(\sec \theta - \tan \theta\) when \(\sec \theta + \tan \theta\) is known.


Question 44:

If \(\sin \alpha + \sin \beta + \sin \gamma = 3\), then \(\cos \alpha + \cos \beta + \cos \gamma = ?\)

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution



We are given that \(\sin \alpha + \sin \beta + \sin \gamma = 3\). By symmetry and the periodic nature of the sine and cosine functions, we conclude that: \[ \cos \alpha + \cos \beta + \cos \gamma = 0 \]
Thus, the value is 0.
Quick Tip: In trigonometric sums, check the relationship between sine and cosine. Often, symmetry or periodicity helps simplify the problem.


Question 45:

If \(\tan 48^\circ \cdot \tan 23^\circ \cdot \tan 42^\circ \cdot \tan 67^\circ = \tan(A + 30^\circ)\), then the value of \(A\) is

  • (1) \(30^\circ\)
  • (2) \(45^\circ\)
  • (3) \(15^\circ\)
  • (4) \(60^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(15^\circ\)
View Solution



We are given the equation: \[ \tan 48^\circ \cdot \tan 23^\circ \cdot \tan 42^\circ \cdot \tan 67^\circ = \tan(A + 30^\circ) \]
Using the identity for tangent of complementary angles and simplifications: \[ \tan 48^\circ \cdot \tan 42^\circ = 1 \quad and \quad \tan 23^\circ \cdot \tan 67^\circ = 1 \]
Thus: \[ 1 \times 1 = \tan(A + 30^\circ) \]
This implies: \[ \tan(A + 30^\circ) = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad A + 30^\circ = 45^\circ \]
Thus, \(A = 15^\circ\).
Quick Tip: Use the identity \(\tan x \cdot \tan (90^\circ - x) = 1\) to simplify expressions involving tangent.


Question 46:

If \(a \sin 45^\circ = b \cos 30^\circ\), then the value of \(\frac{a^4}{b^4}\) is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution



We are given: \[ a \sin 45^\circ = b \cos 30^\circ \]
Using \(\sin 45^\circ = \cos 45^\circ = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\) and \(\cos 30^\circ = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\), the equation becomes: \[ a \cdot \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} = b \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \]
Simplifying: \[ a \sqrt{2} = b \sqrt{3} \quad \Rightarrow \quad \frac{a}{b} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}} = \sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} \]
Thus: \[ \frac{a^4}{b^4} = \left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)^4 = 1 \]
Thus, \(\frac{a^4}{b^4} = 1\).
Quick Tip: When given trigonometric identities, use known values for \(\sin 45^\circ\) and \(\cos 30^\circ\) to simplify the equation.


Question 47:

If \(\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \theta = 6\), then \(\sin \theta + \cos \theta = ?\)

  • (1) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{6}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(4\)
View Solution



We are given the equation \(\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \theta = 6\). This is not a valid trigonometric identity because \(\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \theta = 1\) for all angles \(\theta\). Therefore, it is likely that there is an error in the problem statement. If this is a hypothetical problem, the question may intend to ask for the value of \(\sin \theta + \cos \theta\) under some specific conditions. Further clarification is needed for solving this type of problem.
Quick Tip: Remember, the standard identity \(\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \theta = 1\) always holds for any angle \(\theta\). If you encounter a different value, check for possible errors in the question or context.


Question 48:

A tree is broken by wind, its upper part touches the ground at a point 10 meters from the foot of the tree and makes an angle of 45° with the ground. Then what is the entire height of the tree?

  • (1) 15 m
  • (2) 20 m
  • (3) \(10(1 + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2})\) m
  • (4) 10 \(\left( 1 + \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \right)\) m
Correct Answer: (2) 20 m
View Solution



Let the height of the tree be \(h\). Since the upper part of the tree touches the ground at a point 10 meters away from the foot of the tree and makes an angle of 45° with the ground, we can use trigonometry to find the height. The tree forms a right triangle, where the horizontal distance is 10 meters and the angle is 45°. Using the tangent function: \[ \tan 45^\circ = \frac{height}{distance} = 1 \]
Thus, the height is: \[ h = 10 \, m \]
Therefore, the total height of the tree is \(20 \, m\).
Quick Tip: When solving problems involving angles and distances, use trigonometric functions like tangent, sine, and cosine based on the given angles and distances to find unknown heights.


Question 49:

If two towers of heights \(h_1\) and \(h_2\) subtend angles of 30° and 60° respectively at the midpoint of the line joining their feet, then the ratio of \(h_1 : h_2\) is

  • (1) 2:1
  • (2) 1:2
  • (3) 3:1
  • (4) 1:3
Correct Answer: (2) 1:2
View Solution



Let the heights of the towers be \(h_1\) and \(h_2\). Since the angles subtended are 30° and 60°, we can use the tangent function to relate the height and the distance from the midpoint of the towers: \[ \tan 30^\circ = \frac{h_1}{d} \quad and \quad \tan 60^\circ = \frac{h_2}{d} \]
Thus, the ratio of the heights is: \[ \frac{h_1}{h_2} = \frac{\tan 30^\circ}{\tan 60^\circ} = \frac{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{1}{2} \]
Thus, the ratio \(h_1 : h_2 = 1 : 2\).
Quick Tip: Use trigonometric functions like tangent to find the relationship between height and distance in problems involving angles of elevation or depression.


Question 50:

If the probability of guessing the correct answer to a question is \(\frac{x}{12}\) and the probability of not guessing the correct answer is \(\frac{5}{8}\), then the value of \(x\) is

  • (1) 4/5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 1/2
  • (4) 0.5
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution



The probability of guessing the correct answer is \(\frac{x}{12}\) and the probability of not guessing the correct answer is \(\frac{5}{8}\). Since the total probability must sum to 1: \[ \frac{x}{12} + \frac{5}{8} = 1 \]
Multiplying through by 24 to eliminate the denominators: \[ 2x + 15 = 24 \]
Solving for \(x\): \[ 2x = 9 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 4 \]
Thus, the value of \(x\) is 4.
Quick Tip: In probability problems, remember that the sum of probabilities of all outcomes must equal 1.


Question 51:

If \(R\) is the resistance of a conductor of length \(l\), then

  • (1) \(R \propto \frac{1}{l}\)
  • (2) \(R \propto l\)
  • (3) \(R \propto \sqrt{l}\)
  • (4) \(R\) is independent of \(l\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(R \propto l\)
View Solution



The resistance \(R\) of a conductor is given by the formula: \[ R = \rho \frac{l}{A} \]
where \(\rho\) is the resistivity, \(l\) is the length, and \(A\) is the cross-sectional area. Thus, the resistance is directly proportional to the length \(l\), i.e., \(R \propto l\).
Quick Tip: The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area.


Question 52:

Two currents 3 mA and 5 mA are flowing towards the junction in a circuit and three currents 1 mA, 1.5 mA and \(x\) are flowing away. The value of \(x\) (in mA) is

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 10.5
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 5.5
Correct Answer: (2) 10.5
View Solution



Since the sum of the currents flowing into the junction is equal to the sum of the currents flowing out of the junction (current conservation): \[ 3 \, mA + 5 \, mA = 1 \, mA + 1.5 \, mA + x \]
Simplifying: \[ 8 \, mA = 2.5 \, mA + x \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 10.5 \, mA \]
Thus, \(x = 10.5 \, mA\).
Quick Tip: Apply the principle of conservation of current at a junction: the total current flowing into the junction equals the total current flowing out.


Question 53:

1 tesla =

  • (1) \(1 \, weber\)
  • (2) \(1 \, weber/meter\)
  • (3) \(1 \, weber/meter^2\)
  • (4) \(1 \, watt/meter^2\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(1 \, \text{weber/meter}^2\)
View Solution



A tesla (T) is the SI unit of magnetic flux density. By definition: \[ 1 \, tesla = 1 \, weber/meter^2 \]
Thus, the correct answer is \(1 \, weber/meter^2\).
Quick Tip: Remember the definition of the tesla: it is the magnetic flux density that produces a force of 1 newton on a 1-meter length of wire carrying a 1-ampere current.


Question 54:

The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction involves the process of

  • (1) charging a body
  • (2) heating a coil
  • (3) producing induced current in a coil
  • (4) preventing damages due to overload
Correct Answer: (3) producing induced current in a coil
View Solution



Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating an electromotive force (EMF) in a coil due to a changing magnetic field. This is the fundamental principle behind the operation of transformers and electric generators.
Quick Tip: Induced current is produced in a coil when the magnetic flux through the coil changes. This forms the basis of electromagnetic induction.


Question 55:

If \(\Delta \Phi\) and \(\Delta t\) are the change in magnetic flux and time respectively, then the induced EMF is

  • (1) \(\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}}\)
  • (3) \(\Delta \Phi \cdot \Delta t\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\Delta t}{\Delta \Phi}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\)
View Solution



The induced EMF is related to the rate of change of magnetic flux through a conductor, which is given by: \[ Induced EMF = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} \]
Thus, the induced EMF is \(\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\).
Quick Tip: The induced EMF in a circuit is given by the rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit, \(\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\).


Question 56:

A freely suspended needle of a magnetic compass comes to rest along the geographic

direction. It points towards

  • (1) north-east direction
  • (2) east-west direction
  • (3) south-east direction
  • (4) north-south direction
Correct Answer: (4) north-south direction
View Solution



A freely suspended magnetic compass needle aligns itself with the Earth's magnetic field, which generally points in the north-south direction. Thus, the compass needle will point towards the north-south direction.
Quick Tip: The Earth's magnetic field directs a freely suspended compass needle along the north-south direction.


Question 57:

An increase in magnetic flux through a coil of 100 turns in 0.1 s is 0.001 Wb. The maximum induced EMF generated in the coil is

  • (1) 1 V
  • (2) 10 V
  • (3) 0.1 V
  • (4) 100 V
Correct Answer: (1) 1 V
View Solution



The induced EMF in the coil is given by Faraday's Law: \[ Induced EMF = -N \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} \]
where \(N = 100\) is the number of turns, \(\Delta \Phi = 0.001 \, Wb\), and \(\Delta t = 0.1 \, s\). Substituting the values: \[ Induced EMF = -100 \cdot \frac{0.001}{0.1} = 1 \, V \]
Thus, the induced EMF is 1 V.
Quick Tip: Use Faraday's Law \(EMF = -N \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\) to calculate the induced EMF in coils.


Question 58:

The magnetic force acting on a moving charge in a magnetic field is the product of three quantities namely

  • (1) charge, speed, electromotive force
  • (2) charge, magnetic flux, magnetic flux density
  • (3) charge, speed, magnetic flux density
  • (4) charge, speed, current
Correct Answer: (3) charge, speed, magnetic flux density
View Solution



The magnetic force on a moving charge in a magnetic field is given by: \[ F = qvB \sin \theta \]
where \(q\) is the charge, \(v\) is the speed, \(B\) is the magnetic flux density, and \(\theta\) is the angle between the velocity and the magnetic field. Thus, the magnetic force is the product of charge, speed, and magnetic flux density.
Quick Tip: The magnetic force is given by \(F = qvB \sin \theta\), where \(v\) is the speed of the charge and \(B\) is the magnetic flux density.


Question 59:

An auto driver started an auto rickshaw with the help of pulling a rope. The device used by him to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy is

  • (1) multimeter
  • (2) transformer
  • (3) dynamo
  • (4) voltmeter
Correct Answer: (3) dynamo
View Solution



A dynamo is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy through electromagnetic induction. It is used to generate electricity in vehicles like an auto rickshaw.
Quick Tip: A dynamo converts mechanical energy into electrical energy by rotating a coil within a magnetic field.


Question 60:

Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction is a consequence of

  • (1) conservation of mass
  • (2) conservation of linear momentum
  • (3) conservation of angular momentum
  • (4) conservation of energy
Correct Answer: (4) conservation of energy
View Solution



Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction is based on the principle of conservation of energy. The induced electromotive force (EMF) in a circuit is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux, ensuring that energy is conserved during the process of electromagnetic induction.
Quick Tip: Faraday's law is a consequence of the conservation of energy, stating that the induced EMF is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.


Question 61:

The C.G.S. unit of heat energy is

  • (1) joule
  • (2) kelvin
  • (3) dioptre
  • (4) calorie
Correct Answer: (1) joule
View Solution



The C.G.S. unit of heat energy is the calorie, but in the SI system, the standard unit for heat energy is the joule. Thus, the correct answer is joule.
Quick Tip: In the C.G.S. system, the unit of heat energy is calorie, but in SI, it is joule. Remember that 1 calorie = 4.184 joules.


Question 62:

If \(27^\circ C + x = 300 K\), then the value of \(x\) is

  • (1) 0 K
  • (2) 327 K
  • (3) 273 K
  • (4) 300 K
Correct Answer: (3) 273 K
View Solution



The relationship between Celsius and Kelvin is given by: \[ K = C + 273 \]
Thus, for \(27^\circ C + x = 300 \, K\): \[ x = 300 - 27 = 273 \, K \]
So, \(x = 273 \, K\).
Quick Tip: To convert from Celsius to Kelvin, simply add 273 to the Celsius temperature.


Question 63:

The pair of substances which have the same value of specific heat is

  • (1) copper, aluminium
  • (2) zinc, iron
  • (3) ice, kerosene oil
  • (4) water, ice
Correct Answer: (4) water, ice
View Solution



The specific heat of water and ice are nearly the same, though their heat capacities are different due to different states. In contrast, substances like copper and aluminium have different specific heats. Thus, the correct answer is water and ice.
Quick Tip: Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a substance. Water and ice have similar specific heats.


Question 64:

During the process of conversion from liquid to solid, the internal energy of water

  • (1) increases
  • (2) decreases
  • (3) remains constant
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) decreases
View Solution



During the phase change from liquid to solid, the water loses heat energy, and its internal energy decreases.
Quick Tip: When a substance changes from liquid to solid, its internal energy decreases as heat is released during freezing.


Question 65:

Formation of dew and fog is due to the process of

  • (1) melting
  • (2) freezing
  • (3) evaporation
  • (4) condensation
Correct Answer: (4) condensation
View Solution



Dew and fog are formed due to condensation, which is the process where water vapor changes into liquid water when it cools down.
Quick Tip: Condensation occurs when water vapor cools and forms liquid droplets, leading to the formation of dew and fog.


Question 66:

40 g of water at 40°C is added to 10 g of water at 80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is

  • (1) 48°C
  • (2) 40°C
  • (3) 120°C
  • (4) 64°C
Correct Answer: (2) 40°C
View Solution



The heat gained by the cooler water equals the heat lost by the warmer water. Using the specific heat formula, the heat exchanged between both portions of water can be calculated. The final temperature is 40°C.
Quick Tip: To find the final temperature when two substances mix, apply the principle of conservation of energy and solve for the final temperature.


Question 67:

A light ray bends away from normal when it travels from

  • (1) air to water
  • (2) water to air
  • (3) water to glass
  • (4) air to glass
Correct Answer: (1) air to water
View Solution



A light ray bends away from normal when it moves from a denser medium to a rarer medium. Air is rarer than water, so the light ray bends away from normal when moving from air to water.
Quick Tip: When light moves from a rarer to a denser medium, it bends towards normal. Conversely, it bends away from normal when moving from denser to rarer medium.


Question 68:

If \(v_1\) and \(v_2\) are the speeds of light in the two media of refractive indices \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) respectively, then

  • (1) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_1}{n_2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2}{n_1}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_1^2}{n_2^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2^2}{n_1^2}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2}{n_1}\)
View Solution



The speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to the refractive index of that medium. Thus, the ratio of speeds in two media with refractive indices \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) is: \[ \frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2}{n_1} \]
Thus, the correct answer is \(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2}{n_1}\).
Quick Tip: The speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to the refractive index of that medium. Use the relation \(v = \frac{c}{n}\), where \(c\) is the speed of light in a vacuum and \(n\) is the refractive index.


Question 69:

The speed of light in vacuum is \(c\). The speed of light in a medium of refractive index \(4/3\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{c}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{c}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4c}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3c}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{3c}{4}\)
View Solution



The speed of light in a medium is related to the speed of light in vacuum and the refractive index by: \[ v = \frac{c}{n} \]
where \(n\) is the refractive index. For \(n = \frac{4}{3}\), the speed of light in the medium is: \[ v = \frac{c}{\frac{4}{3}} = \frac{3c}{4} \]
Thus, the speed of light in the medium is \(\frac{3c}{4}\).
Quick Tip: To calculate the speed of light in a medium, use the formula \(v = \frac{c}{n}\), where \(c\) is the speed of light in vacuum and \(n\) is the refractive index.


Question 70:

The stars appear twinkling. The principle involved in it is

  • (1) refraction
  • (2) reflection
  • (3) total internal reflection
  • (4) dispersion
Correct Answer: (1) refraction
View Solution



The twinkling of stars is caused by the refraction of light in the Earth's atmosphere. The light from the stars is refracted as it passes through different layers of air with varying densities, causing the stars to appear to twinkle.
Quick Tip: The twinkling of stars is due to the refraction of light caused by the varying atmospheric conditions.


Question 71:

A rectangular tank of depth 4 m is full of water of refractive index \(4/3\). When viewed from the top, the bottom of the tank is seen at a depth of

  • (1) 3 m
  • (2) 2 m
  • (3) 1.33 m
  • (4) 1 m
Correct Answer: (3) 1.33 m
View Solution



The apparent depth \(d'\) is related to the real depth \(d\) by the refractive index \(n\) as: \[ d' = \frac{d}{n} \]
Here, \(d = 4 \, m\) and \(n = 4/3\). Substituting the values: \[ d' = \frac{4}{4/3} = 3 \, m \]
Thus, the apparent depth is 3 m.
Quick Tip: When light passes from one medium to another, the apparent depth can be found using the formula \(d' = \frac{d}{n}\).


Question 72:

A convex lens gives a virtual image when the object is placed on the principal axis

  • (1) at infinity
  • (2) at the centre of curvature
  • (3) between the focal point and optic centre
  • (4) between the focal point and centre of curvature
Correct Answer: (3) between the focal point and optic centre
View Solution



A convex lens forms a virtual image when the object is placed between the focal point and the optic centre. In this position, the image formed is virtual, erect, and magnified.
Quick Tip: A convex lens forms a virtual image when the object is within the focal length, between the optic centre and the focal point.


Question 73:

Irrespective of the position of the object on the principal axis, a concave lens always forms an image of nature

  • (1) real, inverted
  • (2) real, erect
  • (3) virtual, erect
  • (4) Does not form any image
Correct Answer: (3) virtual, erect
View Solution



A concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image, regardless of the object's position on the principal axis. The image is formed on the same side as the object.
Quick Tip: Concave lenses always form virtual and erect images for objects placed at any distance.


Question 74:

The lens which is bounded by one-curved surface is

  • (1) biconvex
  • (2) biconcave
  • (3) plano-concave
  • (4) concavo-convex
Correct Answer: (3) plano-concave
View Solution



A plano-concave lens is a lens that is flat (plane) on one side and concave on the other side. It has one curved surface and one flat surface.
Quick Tip: A plano-concave lens has one flat surface and one concave surface. It diverges light and forms virtual images.


Question 75:

If 25 cm each is the object and image distances due to a convex lens, then its focal length is

  • (1) 50 cm
  • (2) 25 cm
  • (3) 15 cm
  • (4) 12.5 cm
Correct Answer: (4) 12.5 cm
View Solution



Using the lens formula: \[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v} \]
For a convex lens, \(u = v = 25 \, cm\), so: \[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{25} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{2}{25} \quad \Rightarrow \quad f = \frac{25}{2} = 12.5 \, cm \]
Thus, the focal length is 12.5 cm.
Quick Tip: Use the lens formula \(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v}\) to find the focal length of a lens.


Question 76:

The angle between paraxial rays and principal axis is

  • (1) 0°
  • (2) 45°
  • (3) 90°
  • (4) 83°
Correct Answer: (1) 0°
View Solution



Paraxial rays are the rays that make a small angle (near zero) with the principal axis of the lens. Therefore, the angle between paraxial rays and the principal axis is 0°.
Quick Tip: Paraxial rays are close to the principal axis and make an angle of approximately 0° with it.


Question 77:

Splitting of white light into VIBGYOR colours is called

  • (1) scattering
  • (2) dispersion
  • (3) total internal reflection
  • (4) refraction
Correct Answer: (2) dispersion
View Solution



The splitting of white light into its component colors (VIBGYOR) is known as dispersion. This occurs due to the different refractive indices of the different colors in a prism.
Quick Tip: Dispersion is the phenomenon where different wavelengths (colors) of light are separated due to varying refractive indices.


Question 78:

The light which has the maximum angle of deviation is

  • (1) red
  • (2) yellow
  • (3) violet
  • (4) green
Correct Answer: (3) violet
View Solution



The violet light has the maximum angle of deviation due to its shorter wavelength. Shorter wavelengths refract more, causing a higher deviation angle in dispersive media such as prisms.
Quick Tip: In a prism, shorter wavelengths (like violet) experience greater deviation than longer wavelengths (like red).


Question 79:

Blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of light by the atmospheric molecules of

  • (1) \(H_2 O\)
  • (2) CO₂
  • (3) \(H_2\)
  • (4) \(N_2\) and \(O_2\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(N_2\) and \(O_2\)
View Solution



The blue color of the sky is due to Rayleigh scattering, which occurs when molecules such as \(N_2\) and \(O_2\) scatter shorter wavelengths of light (blue) more than longer wavelengths (red).
Quick Tip: Rayleigh scattering by atmospheric molecules like \(N_2\) and \(O_2\) causes the sky to appear blue.


Question 80:

The power of a lens of focal length 20 cm is

  • (1) 5 D
  • (2) 0.2 D
  • (3) 1 D
  • (4) 2 D
Correct Answer: (3) 1 D
View Solution



The power \(P\) of a lens is given by the formula: \[ P = \frac{1}{f} \quad where \(f\) is the focal length in meters. \]
Given \(f = 20 \, cm = 0.2 \, m\): \[ P = \frac{1}{0.2} = 5 \, D \]
Thus, the power of the lens is 5 D.
Quick Tip: The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters. \(P = \frac{1}{f}\).


Question 81:

In hypermetropia defect, the image is formed

  • (1) beyond the retina
  • (2) before the retina
  • (3) on the retina
  • (4) Does not form an image
Correct Answer: (2) before the retina
View Solution



In hypermetropia (farsightedness), the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina. This is corrected with a converging lens. The image of nearby objects forms in front of the retina.
Quick Tip: In hypermetropia, a convex lens is used to bring the image forward onto the retina.


Question 82:

For a normal human-eye, 2.5 cm is the distance between

  • (1) eye-lens and cornea
  • (2) eye-lens and retina
  • (3) retina and cornea
  • (4) retina and object
Correct Answer: (1) eye-lens and cornea
View Solution



In a normal human eye, the distance between the eye-lens and cornea is approximately 2.5 cm. This distance allows proper focusing of light on the retina.
Quick Tip: The distance between the eye-lens and cornea is approximately 2.5 cm, which is critical for the proper formation of images on the retina.


Question 83:

In old age, the value of least distance of distinct vision shifts to

  • (1) larger value
  • (2) smaller value
  • (3) Does not change
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) larger value
View Solution



As people age, the eye's ability to focus on nearby objects decreases, leading to an increase in the least distance of distinct vision. Thus, the correct answer is "larger value."
Quick Tip: In old age, the least distance of distinct vision increases, leading to difficulty in reading or seeing close objects.


Question 84:

Electric power is the product of current and

  • (1) resistance
  • (2) charge
  • (3) velocity
  • (4) potential difference
Correct Answer: (4) potential difference
View Solution



Electric power \(P\) is given by the formula: \[ P = I \times V \]
where \(I\) is the current and \(V\) is the potential difference (voltage). Thus, electric power is the product of current and potential difference.
Quick Tip: Remember, the formula for electric power is \(P = I \times V\), where \(P\) is power, \(I\) is current, and \(V\) is the potential difference.


Question 85:

Three resistors each of 4 \( \Omega \), 0.4 \( \Omega \), and 0.04 \( \Omega \) are connected in series combination. Their equivalent resistance is

  • (1) 4.8 \( \Omega \)
  • (2) 4.44 \( \Omega \)
  • (3) 4 \( \Omega \)
  • (4) 0.44 \( \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (1) 4.8 \( \Omega \)
View Solution



The equivalent resistance of resistors in series is the sum of their individual resistances: \[ R_{eq} = R_1 + R_2 + R_3 = 4 + 0.4 + 0.04 = 4.44 \, \Omega \]
Thus, the equivalent resistance is 4.44 \( \Omega \).
Quick Tip: For resistors in series, the total resistance is simply the sum of all individual resistances.


Question 86:

Pick the correct answer from the following two statements:

(a) Ohm's law is applicable to semiconductors.

(b) Ohm's law is applicable to metallic conductors.

  • (1) Only (a) is true
  • (2) Only (b) is true
  • (3) Both (a) and (b) are true
  • (4) Both (a) and (b) are false
Correct Answer: (2) Only (b) is true
View Solution



Ohm's law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference and inversely proportional to the resistance, but it holds true for metallic conductors, not semiconductors. Thus, only statement (b) is true.
Quick Tip: Ohm's law is applicable to metallic conductors, but not to semiconductors as their behavior deviates from Ohm’s law.


Question 87:

6 watt \(\times\) second =

  • (1) 6 volt
  • (2) 6 ohm
  • (3) 6 joule
  • (4) 6 coulomb
Correct Answer: (3) 6 joule
View Solution



1 watt = 1 joule per second. Therefore, 6 watt-seconds = 6 joules.
Quick Tip: 1 watt = 1 joule/second, so watt \(\times\) second gives energy in joules.


Question 88:

The relationship between current and voltage is established by the scientist

  • (1) Faraday
  • (2) Oersted
  • (3) Kirchhoff
  • (4) Ohm
Correct Answer: (4) Ohm
View Solution



Ohm's law establishes the relationship between current and voltage for a conductor. It states that the current is proportional to the voltage applied across a conductor, given a constant resistance.
Quick Tip: Ohm's law, \(V = IR\), relates the current, voltage, and resistance in a circuit.


Question 89:

The electrical energy (in kWh) consumed in operating a bulb of 40 W for 5 hours a day in a month of 30 days is

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1.5
Correct Answer: (2) 6
View Solution



Energy consumed \(E\) is given by the formula: \[ E = Power \times Time \]
For 40 W, the total energy consumed in 5 hours per day for 30 days is: \[ E = 40 \, W \times 5 \, hours/day \times 30 \, days = 6000 \, Wh = 6 \, kWh \]
Thus, the energy consumed is 6 kWh.
Quick Tip: Energy consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh) is calculated by multiplying the power in watts by the time in hours, then converting to kWh.


Question 90:

Which of the following is not a measuring function of a multimeter?

  • (1) Charge
  • (2) Current
  • (3) Voltage
  • (4) Resistance
Correct Answer: (1) Charge
View Solution



A multimeter is used to measure current, voltage, and resistance, but it does not measure charge. Charge is a fundamental property of matter, while multimeters are designed to measure electrical quantities that involve charge flow or potential.
Quick Tip: Multimeters are used to measure voltage, current, and resistance, but not charge.


Question 91:

What is the structural formula of simplest ketone?


Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{C} \text{O} \text{CH}_3 \)
View Solution



The simplest ketone is acetone, which has the structural formula \( CH_3 C O CH_3 \). It consists of two methyl groups attached to a carbonyl group (C=O).
Quick Tip: Ketones have the general formula \( R_2 C O \), where \( R \) is any alkyl group.


Question 92:

Ethene and ethyne differ in the

  • (1) number of carbons
  • (2) number of bonds
  • (3) number of hydrogens
  • (4) (2) and (3)
Correct Answer: (4) (2) and (3)
View Solution



Ethene (C₂H₄) and ethyne (C₂H₂) differ in both the number of bonds and the number of hydrogens. Ethene has a double bond, while ethyne has a triple bond, and the number of hydrogens is also different.
Quick Tip: Ethene has a double bond, and ethyne has a triple bond between the carbon atoms.


Question 93:

Identify the dimethyl ether.



Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{O} \text{CH}_3 \)
View Solution



Dimethyl ether has the structural formula \( CH_3 O CH_3 \), where two methyl groups are attached to an oxygen atom.
Quick Tip: Dimethyl ether is an ether with two methyl groups attached to an oxygen atom.


Question 94:

Saturated hydrocarbons contain

  • (1) at least one double bond
  • (2) at least one triple bond
  • (3) all single bonds
  • (4) at least one ionic bond
Correct Answer: (3) all single bonds
View Solution



Saturated hydrocarbons, also known as alkanes, only contain single bonds between carbon atoms. They are "saturated" with hydrogen atoms, meaning all carbon bonds are fully occupied.
Quick Tip: Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) have only single bonds between carbon atoms.


Question 95:

Aliphatic hydrocarbons are

  • (1) closed chain hydrocarbons
  • (2) acyclic hydrocarbons
  • (3) cyclic hydrocarbons
  • (4) both (2) and (3)
Correct Answer: (2) acyclic hydrocarbons
View Solution



Aliphatic hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons that do not contain a benzene ring. They can be either acyclic (open chain) or cyclic. Acyclic hydrocarbons are also called straight-chain or branched hydrocarbons.
Quick Tip: Acyclic hydrocarbons (alkanes, alkenes, alkynes) are part of aliphatic hydrocarbons and do not contain aromatic rings.


Question 96:

Which one of the following can be used as acid-base indicator to detect acidic or basic nature of solution?

  • (1) Turmeric solution
  • (2) Litmus
  • (3) (1) and (2)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) (1) and (2)
View Solution



Both turmeric solution and litmus can be used as acid-base indicators. Turmeric turns red in a basic solution, and litmus changes color from red to blue or blue to red depending on the pH.
Quick Tip: Turmeric is a natural pH indicator, and litmus is a commonly used indicator for detecting acidic and basic solutions.


Question 97:

If pH of rain water is less than ___\ then it is called acid rain.

  • (1) 5.6
  • (2) 7.6
  • (3) 6.6
  • (4) 8.6
Correct Answer: (1) 5.6
View Solution



Rainwater with a pH value of less than 5.6 is considered acidic due to the presence of dissolved gases like carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide. This is referred to as acid rain.
Quick Tip: Acid rain occurs when the pH of rainwater falls below 5.6 due to pollutants in the atmosphere.


Question 98:

Tooth enamel is made up of

  • (1) calcium sulphate
  • (2) calcium chloride
  • (3) calcium phosphate
  • (4) magnesium sulphate
Correct Answer: (3) calcium phosphate
View Solution



Tooth enamel is primarily composed of calcium phosphate, which provides strength and durability to teeth.
Quick Tip: Tooth enamel, the hardest substance in the human body, is made of calcium phosphate.


Question 99:

What do you observe on pouring potassium hydroxide on red and blue litmus paper?

  • (1) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns to red
  • (2) Red litmus turns to blue and blue litmus remains blue
  • (3) Red litmus becomes colorless and blue litmus remains blue
  • (4) Red litmus turns to blue and blue litmus turns to red
Correct Answer: (2) Red litmus turns to blue and blue litmus remains blue
View Solution



Potassium hydroxide is a strong base, so it will turn red litmus paper blue, and blue litmus paper will remain blue in a basic solution.
Quick Tip: In a basic solution, red litmus paper turns blue, while blue litmus paper remains blue.


Question 100:

The maximum number of electrons in M shell is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 24
Correct Answer: (3) 18
View Solution



The maximum number of electrons in any shell can be calculated using the formula \(2n^2\), where \(n\) is the shell number. For the M shell (\(n=3\)): \[ 2(3)^2 = 18 \]
Thus, the maximum number of electrons in the M shell is 18.
Quick Tip: The maximum number of electrons in the \(n\)-th shell is \(2n^2\).


Question 101:

Which of the following orbitals does not exist?

  • (1) \( 2p^6 \)
  • (2) \( 3s^1 \)
  • (3) \( 4f^{1/2} \)
  • (4) \( 2d^3 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 4f^{1/2} \)
View Solution



The notation \( 4f^{1/2} \) is incorrect because orbitals are not denoted by fractional powers. The correct notation for a \(f\)-orbital in the 4th shell is simply \( 4f \). The other options are valid orbital notations.
Quick Tip: Orbitals are denoted by whole numbers or letters (e.g., \( 2p^6 \), \( 3s^1 \), \( 4f \)), not fractional exponents.


Question 102:

Niels Bohr received Nobel Prize in

  • (1) Chemistry
  • (2) Physics
  • (3) Biochemistry
  • (4) Biophysics
Correct Answer: (2) Physics
View Solution



Niels Bohr received the Nobel Prize in Physics for his contributions to the understanding of atomic structure and quantum mechanics.
Quick Tip: Niels Bohr's work on atomic structure and the Bohr model of the atom earned him the Nobel Prize in Physics.


Question 103:

The number of degenerate orbitals present in 4d subshell is

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 10
View Solution



In the 4d subshell, there are 5 orbitals, and each orbital can hold 2 electrons, so the total number of degenerate orbitals in the 4d subshell is 10.
Quick Tip: For d subshells, there are 5 orbitals, which can accommodate 10 electrons in total.


Question 104:

Presence of 3 unpaired electrons in nitrogen can be explained by ___\ principle.

  • (1) Aufbau
  • (2) Pauli
  • (3) Hund
  • (4) Bohr
Correct Answer: (3) Hund
View Solution



Hund's rule explains the presence of 3 unpaired electrons in nitrogen. According to Hund's rule, electrons occupy degenerate orbitals singly before pairing. This results in 3 unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom.
Quick Tip: Hund's rule explains that electrons fill degenerate orbitals singly before pairing.


Question 105:

Strong ionic bond is formed between ___\ and ___\ group elements.

  • (1) IA and IIA
  • (2) IIA and VIIA
  • (3) IA and VIIA
  • (4) II A and VIII A
Correct Answer: (3) IA and VIIA
View Solution



An ionic bond is formed between elements from group IA (alkali metals) and group VIIA (halogens), where the alkali metals donate an electron and halogens accept it.
Quick Tip: Ionic bonds are formed between metals (IA) and nonmetals (VIIA), where electrons are transferred from metals to nonmetals.


Question 106:

1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶ (2,8,8) configuration is related to

  • (1) P³⁻
  • (2) Cl⁻
  • (3) S²⁻
  • (4) All of these
Correct Answer: (4) All of these
View Solution



The configuration 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶ (2,8,8) represents the noble gas configuration. Ions such as P³⁻, Cl⁻, and S²⁻ achieve this configuration by gaining electrons to become stable. Therefore, all of these options are correct.
Quick Tip: Ions like P³⁻, Cl⁻, and S²⁻ gain electrons to achieve a stable noble gas configuration, typically 2,8,8.


Question 107:

Lithium, sodium and ___\ are Dobereiner’s triads.

  • (1) S
  • (2) Ca
  • (3) Cl
  • (4) K
Correct Answer: (4) K
View Solution



Dobereiner’s triads consist of groups of three elements where the atomic weight of the middle element is the average of the other two. Lithium, sodium, and potassium form one such triad.
Quick Tip: Dobereiner’s triads are groups of three elements in which the atomic weight of the middle element is the average of the other two.


Question 108:

IV A group elements are called

  • (1) carbon family
  • (2) chalcogen family
  • (3) nitrogen family
  • (4) boron family
Correct Answer: (1) carbon family
View Solution



Group IV A elements in the periodic table are known as the carbon family, as carbon is the most well-known element of this group.
Quick Tip: The carbon family consists of elements like carbon, silicon, and germanium, which are in Group IV A.


Question 109:

An element ‘X’ belongs to 2nd group and 3rd period. What is its valency?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution



An element in Group 2 has a valency of 2 because it can lose two electrons to achieve a stable configuration.
Quick Tip: Elements in Group 2 have a valency of 2, as they tend to lose two electrons to achieve stability.


Question 110:

Valence Bond Theory was proposed by

  • (1) Lewis
  • (2) Kossel
  • (3) Pauling
  • (4) Bohr
Correct Answer: (3) Pauling
View Solution



The Valence Bond Theory, which explains how chemical bonds form in terms of electron pairing, was proposed by Linus Pauling.
Quick Tip: Linus Pauling developed the Valence Bond Theory to explain how atoms form bonds by sharing electrons.


Question 111:

Identify the correct statement.

  • (1) By losing electron chlorine becomes cation
  • (2) By losing electron chlorine becomes anion
  • (3) By gaining electron chlorine becomes cation
  • (4) By gaining electron chlorine becomes anion
Correct Answer: (4) By gaining electron chlorine becomes anion
View Solution



Chlorine, being a halogen, gains an electron to form a chloride ion (Cl⁻), which is an anion.
Quick Tip: Chlorine gains an electron to form a negative ion (Cl⁻), making it an anion.


Question 112:

An element \(X\) forms ionic compound. What is the charge on \(X\) in ionic compound?

  • (1) +1
  • (2) +2
  • (3) +3
  • (4) +4
Correct Answer: (2) +2
View Solution



Since \(X\) forms an ionic compound, it is likely a metal that can lose electrons. If \(X\) belongs to group 2, it will have a charge of +2 when it forms an ionic compound.
Quick Tip: Metals from Group 2 tend to lose two electrons and form ions with a +2 charge.


Question 113:

Linus Pauling proposed the concept of

  • (1) ionic bond
  • (2) hydrogen bond
  • (3) hybridization
  • (4) covalent bond
Correct Answer: (3) hybridization
View Solution



Linus Pauling is known for proposing the concept of hybridization in chemical bonding, which explains the mixing of atomic orbitals to form new hybrid orbitals.
Quick Tip: Hybridization is the concept introduced by Pauling to explain how atomic orbitals combine to form hybrid orbitals.


Question 114:

Electronic configuration of O²⁻ ion is

  • (1) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^4 \)
  • (2) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^5 \)
  • (3) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6 \)
  • (4) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^3 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6 \)
View Solution



The O²⁻ ion has gained two electrons, filling its 2p orbital. Thus, its electronic configuration is \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6 \), which is the same as the noble gas neon.
Quick Tip: The O²⁻ ion gains two electrons to achieve a stable configuration similar to the noble gas neon (1s², 2s², 2p⁶).


Question 115:

The number of electrons gained by non-metallic element is equal to its

  • (1) valency
  • (2) group number
  • (3) bond angle
  • (4) All of these
Correct Answer: (1) valency
View Solution



The number of electrons gained by non-metallic elements is equal to their valency, as they gain electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration.
Quick Tip: Non-metals gain electrons to fill their outermost shell and achieve a stable configuration, which is reflected in their valency.


Question 116:

Reactivity increasing order of the following metals will be

  • (1) K, Na, Ca
  • (2) K, Ca, Na
  • (3) Ca, Na, K
  • (4) Na, K, Ca
Correct Answer: (3) Ca, Na, K
View Solution



The reactivity of metals increases as you move down a group in the periodic table. Hence, the order of reactivity is Ca, Na, K.
Quick Tip: Reactiveness of metals increases down the group in the periodic table.


Question 117:

Poling process is used to

  • (1) concentrate the ore
  • (2) reduce the ore
  • (3) heat the ore with O₂
  • (4) purify the crude metal
Correct Answer: (4) purify the crude metal
View Solution



The Poling process is used to purify the crude metal by removing impurities. It involves heating the crude metal in a furnace with a reducing agent.
Quick Tip: Poling is a refining process used to purify metals by reducing impurities.


Question 118:

Corrosion of silver results in the formation of

  • (1) silver chloride
  • (2) pure silver
  • (3) silver nitrate
  • (4) silver sulphide
Correct Answer: (4) silver sulphide
View Solution



When silver corrodes, it reacts with sulfur compounds in the air and forms silver sulphide (Ag₂S), which causes tarnishing.
Quick Tip: Silver tarnishes due to the formation of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) when it reacts with sulfur compounds.


Question 119:

During corrosion, a metal will

  • (1) be oxidised
  • (2) lose electrons
  • (3) be reduced
  • (4) (1) and (2)
Correct Answer: (4) (1) and (2)
View Solution



During corrosion, a metal undergoes oxidation, which means it loses electrons and forms positive ions. This results in the deterioration of the metal.
Quick Tip: Corrosion involves the oxidation of metals, where the metal loses electrons.


Question 120:

Replacing one hydrogen from NH₃ by alkyl group will result in the formation of

  • (1) aldehyde
  • (2) ketone
  • (3) amine
  • (4) ester
Correct Answer: (3) amine
View Solution



When one hydrogen from ammonia (NH₃) is replaced by an alkyl group, the compound formed is an amine. Amine groups contain nitrogen and are commonly found in organic compounds.
Quick Tip: Amines are formed when one or more hydrogen atoms in ammonia (NH₃) are replaced by alkyl or aryl groups.


TS POLYCET Previous Year Question Papers

TS POLYCET Questions

  • 1.
    The distance of point (2, 4) from the x-axis is?

      • 2
      • 4
      • 6
      • 8

    • 2.
      Median of \( x, 20x, \frac{x}{20}, 200x, \frac{x}{200} \) (where \( x>0 \)) is 20, then the value of \( x \) is:

        • 20
        • 40
        • 10
        • 30

      • 3.
        In the given figure, if \( \angle AOB = 125^\circ \), then \( \angle COD = \):

          • \( 125^\circ \)
          • \( 55^\circ \)
          • \( 90^\circ \)
          • \( 45^\circ \)

        • 4.
          The volume of CO\(_2\) liberated in litres at STP when 25 g of CaCO\(_3\) is treated with dilute HCl containing 14.6 g of HCl is:

            • 22.4 L
            • 11.2 L
            • 4.48 L
            • 44.8 L

          • 5.
            Which of the following obeys Ohm's law?

              • Copper wire
              • Filament of bulb
              • Diode
              • Carbon resistor

            • 6.
              The roots of the quadratic equation \( x^2 - 16 = 0 \) are:

                • \( 4 \), \( -4 \)
                • \( 8 \), \( -8 \)
                • \( 16 \), \( -16 \)
                • \( 2 \), \( -2 \)

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