KMAT Kerala 2025 Question Paper along with the solution PDF is available here to download in pdf form.

The KMAT 2025 exam is divided into four sections: Data Sufficiency and Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language Usage and Reading Comprehension, and General Knowledge and Current Affairs. The KMAT 2025 exam is a total of 720 marks.

KMAT Kerala 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

KMAT Kerala 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF download iconDownload Check Solution


Question 1:

They ________ her and trusted her for years.

  • (A) know
  • (B) had known
  • (C) knew
  • (D) known

Question 2:

I was born ________ India ________ Delhi.

  • (A) in, at
  • (B) in, to
  • (C) at, in
  • (D) to, in

Question 3:

The point you spoke of will be attended ________. But if you ever touch ________ it again, I hope you will speak ________ length on the wider question ________ which that point hinges.

  • (A) to, at, on, upon
  • (B) to, upon, at, on
  • (C) at, on, upon, to
  • (D) upon, to, at, on

Question 4:

The word “ dare ” means

  • (A) help
  • (B) approve
  • (C) challenge
  • (D) hide

Question 5:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) territoriees
  • (B) teritories
  • (C) territaries
  • (D) territories

Question 6:

You have not visited me ________ a long time past.

  • (A) at
  • (B) in
  • (C) for
  • (D) with

Question 7:

I do not expect that he will be here ________ a week and I am certain that he will not be here ________ sunset today.

  • (A) before, within
  • (B) before, to
  • (C) within, before
  • (D) since, within

Question 8:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word fabulous?

  • (A) superb
  • (B) ordinary
  • (C) remarkable
  • (D) awesome

Question 9:

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

  • (A) Last year I go to Germany
  • (B) Last year I went to Japan
  • (C) Last year I will go to England
  • (D) Last year I am going to Norway

Question 10:

Which one of the following is correctly spelled?

  • (A) Bouquete
  • (B) Bouqet
  • (C) Bouquet
  • (D) Bouquette

Question 11:

Choose the word, which is similar in meaning to the given word CONDESCEND.

  • (A) blame
  • (B) resist
  • (C) trick
  • (D) act superior

Question 12:

Choose the word which is having similar meaning as the word "INDELIBLE."

  • (A) Memorable
  • (B) Stirring
  • (C) Inerasable
  • (D) Lasting

Question 13:

It depends on whether we get _________ down by failures or use them as stepping-stones.

  • (A) wretched
  • (B) bogged
  • (C) squirted
  • (D) eluded

Question 14:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word conflict?

  • (A) battle
  • (B) clash
  • (C) agreement
  • (D) struggle

Question 15:

Change the present simple sentence “He writes a letter” into past simple sentence.

  • (A) He has written a letter
  • (B) He wrote a letter
  • (C) He write a letter
  • (D) He send a written letter

Question 16:

Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word "EXODUS."

  • (A) Influx
  • (B) Home-coming
  • (C) Return
  • (D) Restoration

Question 17:

Arrange the following components (1,2,3 and 4) in proper sentence to obtain a correct sentence.

1. every year many students from
2. appear the SSC Examination
3. held on all India basis
4. all over the country

  • (A) 1,3,2,4
  • (B) 1,4,3,2
  • (C) 1,2,3,4
  • (D) 1,4,2,3

Question 18:

Select the correctly spelled word.

  • (A) rhyeme
  • (B) rhythm
  • (C) rythm
  • (D) rythem

Question 19:

Change the sentence “Drinking alcohol is a bad habit” into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Do you drink alcohol ?
  • (B) Is not drinking alcohol a bad habit?
  • (C) Do not drink alcohol
  • (D) Is it a bad habit?

Question 20:

Find out the correct preposition.
He wants to be ________ the party.

  • (A) with
  • (B) of
  • (C) from
  • (D) at

Question 21:

Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom "Make up one's mind."

  • (A) to be prepared
  • (B) to make someone happy
  • (C) make a decision
  • (D) to criticize someone

Question 22:

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: "He said that he went to park every day."

  • (A) He said, “ he used to park every day”
  • (B) He said, “ I will go to park every day”
  • (C) He said, “ he goes to park every day”
  • (D) He said, “ I go to park every day”

Question 23:

Convert the sentence into Passive Voice: "I must do it."

  • (A) It must be done by me
  • (B) It has to be done by me.
  • (C) It is to be done by him
  • (D) It must be done by him

Question 24:

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: "He has said that he reads a novel every month."

  • (A) He has said “ I do not read a novel every month”
  • (B) He has said “ he reads a novel every month”
  • (C) He has said “ he read a novel every month”
  • (D) He has said “ I read a novel every month”

Question 25:

Pick the word/phrase which is opposite in meaning to the given word "ASPIRATION."

  • (A) dislike
  • (B) eagerness
  • (C) passion
  • (D) objective

Question 26:

Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom/phrase "Caught between two stools."

  • (A) met with an accident
  • (B) difficulty in choosing between two alternatives
  • (C) struck in a calamity
  • (D) doing two things at a time

Question 27:

Select the correctly spelled word.

  • (A) ocurred
  • (B) occured
  • (C) occurred
  • (D) ocured

Question 28:

Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the given word in the bracket to make the sentence meaningful:

The seniors __________ (apology) for their rude behavior with juniors.

  • (A) apologising
  • (B) apologetic
  • (C) apologized
  • (D) apologetic

Question 29:

Find the odd term from the given 4 options which does not belong to the group of remaining options.

  • (A) Vulture
  • (B) Doves
  • (C) Kingfishers
  • (D) Kiwi

Question 30:

Convert the sentence into Passive Voice: "Take food on time."

  • (A) Food should be take early
  • (B) Food takes on time
  • (C) Food should be taken on time
  • (D) timely food is must

Question 31:

Convert the sentence into Active Voice: "The snake was killed by the dog."

  • (A) The dog killed the snake
  • (B) The dog kills the snake
  • (C) The snake is killed by him
  • (D) The dog has killed the snake

Question 32:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) Mateorology
  • (B) meteoralogy
  • (C) meteorology
  • (D) meterology

Question 33:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word "hilarious"?

  • (A) Entertaining
  • (B) lively
  • (C) amusing
  • (D) sad

Question 34:

Find out the correct preposition: "She wants to jump ______ the swimming pool."

  • (A) of
  • (B) with
  • (C) into
  • (D) out

Question 35:

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
Violence _____ the prison has _________ three lives.

  • (A) in, taken
  • (B) from, expired
  • (C) of, cost
  • (D) with, removed

Question 36:

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
The disease __________ widely all ______ the district.

  • (A) expands, from
  • (B) spreads, over
  • (C) goes, in
  • (D) attack, with

Question 37:

Choose the word for the blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
The main road was blocked for three hours today morning after an accident ________ two cars.

  • (A) including
  • (B) seeing
  • (C) involving
  • (D) connecting

Question 38:

Convert the sentence into Active Voice: "The surgery was performed by a team of doctors."

  • (A) A team of doctors perform the surgery
  • (B) A team of doctors performed the surgery
  • (C) A team of doctors has performed the surgery
  • (D) A team of doctors have performed the surgery

Question 39:

Choose the word for the blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
Many university courses are not really ________ to meet the needs of students seeking for employment.

  • (A) required
  • (B) sufficient
  • (C) demanded
  • (D) omitted

Question 40:

Choose the correct word from the options which is similar to the word given in italics in the sentence:
The students are 'instructed' to attend the classes regularly.

  • (A) avoided
  • (B) allowed
  • (C) ignored
  • (D) directed

Question 41:

Choose the word for the blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
After the Cabinet reshuffle, the Minister was not happy with his new ______.

  • (A) employment
  • (B) place
  • (C) work
  • (D) portfolio

Question 42:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: in the building
Q: collapsed
R: the temporary sheds
S: in the rain

  • (A) QRPS
  • (B) QSRP
  • (C) RPQS
  • (D) QPRS

Question 43:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: restless   
Q: his piece of mind
R: he becomes
S: and loses

  • (A) RPSQ
  • (B) QSRP
  • (C) SQRP
  • (D) RPQS

Question 44:

Choose the word similar in meaning to the given word "LAX."

  • (A) ensure
  • (B) slack
  • (C) servant
  • (D) strive

Question 45:

Choose the word similar in meaning to the given word "PERSPICUOUS."

  • (A) cruel
  • (B) clever
  • (C) dim
  • (D) clear

Question 46:

Read the passage and answer the question:

In today’s situation where the awareness and interest in reading about archaeology are increasing, new articles on our heritage have to be published in newspapers. Understanding history and myths requires understanding the new developments in archaeology and new trends in technology.

The above passage urges the need for the study of

  • (A) politics
  • (B) history
  • (C) archaeology
  • (D) environment

Question 47:

Read the passage and answer the question:

Colds and flu are viral infections of the upper respiratory tract. They are extremely contagious. They are spread by airborne droplets of mucus. The virus can also be passed on by physical contact if the recipients pick up the virus on their hand and rub their eyes or nose.

This passage primarily focused on

  • (A) the contagious diseases
  • (B) the spread of common viruses
  • (C) health issues
  • (D) spread of colds and flu infections

Question 48:

Read the passage and answer the question:

A psychotropic drug is a chemical substance that changes the function of the nervous system. If the charges under the Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic substances Act are proved, the accused will get a deterrent punishment. Police will take in drug addicts and admit them in centres for rehabilitation.
This passage primarily focused on

  • (A) medical use of drugs
  • (B) drug abuse
  • (C) punishment
  • (D) law and order

Question 49:

Read the passage and answer the question:

Animals are the most adorable and loving creatures existing on Earth. They may not be able to speak but they can understand. Domestic animals mostly move with humans. Wild animals generally live in forests. Animals play a vital role in maintaining nature’s balance.

This passage primarily focused on the importance of

  • (A) domestic animals alone
  • (B) forests
  • (C) wild animals only
  • (D) animals

Question 50:

Read the passage and answer the question:

The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year 1935. The Central office of RBI is in Mumbai. The main function of the Reserve Bank of India is to regulate the issue of Bank Notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India. It generally operates the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.
In this passage, ‘Bank Notes’ refers to

  • (A) goods and services
  • (B) currency notes
  • (C) circulars sent by the Banks
  • (D) file notes

Question 51:

If \( x + y = 2 \) and \( x^2 + y^2 = 2 \), what is the value of \( xy \)?

  • (A) \( -2 \)
  • (B) \( -1 \)
  • (C) \( 0 \)
  • (D) \( 1 \)

Question 52:

Rs.10000 is invested for 4 years and nine months at 10% simple interest. The interest amount at the end of the period is

  • (A) Rs.4750
  • (B) Rs.4160
  • (C) Rs.4760
  • (D) Rs.4260

Question 53:

Rs.1000 was deposited in a bank for 2 years at 5% compound interest. At the end of the second year, the maturity amount will be

  • (A) Rs. 1110.50
  • (B) Rs. 1120
  • (C) Rs. 1220.50
  • (D) Rs. 1102.50

Question 54:

If \( a : 3 = 24 : 9 \), then a is equal to

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 10

Question 55:

If \( A : B = 3 : 4 \) and \( B : C = 5 : 7 \), then \( A : B : C \) is equal to

  • (A) 8 : 12 : 18
  • (B) 6 : 9 : 13
  • (C) 6 : 9 : 26
  • (D) 15 : 20 : 28

Question 56:

A box contains coins of Rs.10, Rs.20, and Rs.5 respectively in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6. If the total number of coins in the box is 120, then the value of all coins in the box is

  • (A) 1160
  • (B) 1260
  • (C) 1360
  • (D) 1420

Question 57:

Of the following, which is least?

  • (A) \( \frac{0.03}{0.00071} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{0.03}{0.0071} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{0.03}{0.071} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{0.03}{7.1} \)

Question 58:

A group of store managers must assemble 280 displays for an upcoming sale. If they assemble 25 percent of the displays during the first hour and 40 percent of the remaining displays during the second hour, how many of the displays will not have been assembled by the end of the second hour?

  • (A) 70
  • (B) 98
  • (C) 126
  • (D) 182

Question 59:

A company plans to produce 1500 units of an item per hour and plans to send out 700 units of the item per hour from the company for sales. The number of units available in the company at the end of 10 hours is

  • (A) 15000 units
  • (B) 12000 units
  • (C) 10000 units
  • (D) 8000 units

Question 60:

A person owns 2 rectangular tracts of land. One is 300 m by 500 m and the other is 250 m by 630 m. The combined area of these 2 tracts is in square meters?

  • (A) 305700
  • (B) 307500
  • (C) 370500
  • (D) 350700

Question 61:

If four fifths of a number is 24800, then two fifths of the same number is

  • (A) 18400
  • (B) 13400
  • (C) 12400
  • (D) 12475

Question 62:

A can complete a work in 30 days and B can complete the same work in 20 days. If A and B work together, the number of days required for them to complete the work is

  • (A) 25 days
  • (B) 12 days
  • (C) 15 days
  • (D) 16 days

Question 63:

A rope 20.6 meters long is cut into two pieces. If the length of one piece of rope is 2.8 meters shorter than the length of the other, what is the length, in meters, of the longer piece of rope?

  • (A) 7.5
  • (B) 8.9
  • (C) 9.9
  • (D) 11.7

Question 64:

The annual budget of a certain college is to be shown on a circle graph. If the size of each sector of the graph is to be proportional to the amount of the budget it represents, how many degrees of the circle should be used to represent an item that is 15 percent of the budget?

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 54
  • (D) 90

Question 65:

If the student A scored 34 marks out of 50 in one subject and scored 70 marks out of 80 in another subject, then the percentage of marks scored by him is

  • (A) 70
  • (B) 80
  • (C) 75
  • (D) 85

Question 66:

If \( t % \) of 40% of 100 is equal to 20% of 300, then the value of \( t \) is

  • (A) 150
  • (B) 155
  • (C) 125
  • (D) 225

Question 67:

Now, the age of the Father and that of his Son are in the ratio 7 : 2. After 10 years, the ratio will become 9 : 4. The present age of the son is (in years)

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 8

Question 68:

Five machines at a certain factory operate at the same constant rate. If four of these machines, operating simultaneously, take 30 hours to fill a certain production order, how many fewer hours does it take all five machines, operating simultaneously, to fill the same production order?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 69:

A certain bridge is 4,024 feet long. Approximately how many minutes does it take to cross this bridge at a constant speed of 20 miles per hour? (1 mile = 5,280 feet)

  • (A) 1.7
  • (B) 2.3
  • (C) 4.2
  • (D) 6.1

Question 70:

In the sequence 50, 50+k, 50+2k, 50+3k, 50+4k, ….., the 51st term is 350. Then the value of \( k \) is equal to

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 15

Question 71:

Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 9, 11, and 13?

  • (A) 1286
  • (B) 1287
  • (C) 1289
  • (D) 1283

Question 72:

A set A has 620 elements and another set B has 380 elements. If the union of the sets A and B has 950 elements, the number of common elements in A and B is equal to

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 100
  • (C) 75
  • (D) 60

Question 73:

How many numbers between 900 and 1000 are divisible by 13?

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 7

Question 74:

The annual interest rate earned by an investment increased by 10 percent from last year to this year. If the annual interest rate earned by the investment this year was 11 percent, what was the annual interest rate last year?

  • (A) 1%
  • (B) 1.1%
  • (C) 9.1%
  • (D) 10%

Question 75:

Each machine at a toy factory assembles a certain kind of toy at a constant rate of one toy every 3 minutes. If 40 percent of the machines at the factory are to be replaced by new machines that assemble this kind of toy at a constant rate of one toy every 2 minutes, what will be the percent increase in the number of toys assembled in one hour by all the machines at the factory, working at their constant rates?

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 30%
  • (D) 40%

Question 76:

Two buses start at 9AM from two different places on a straight road. The buses travel towards each other at uniform speeds of 45 kmph and 55 kmph respectively. If the two places are 200 km apart, the buses will meet at

  • (A) 11 PM
  • (B) 10AM
  • (C) 10.30 AM
  • (D) 11 AM

Question 77:

A seller is to sell a product for Rs. \( x \). But he sold it for Rs. 4000 with a 20% discount. Then \( x \) is

  • (A) Rs. 5600
  • (B) Rs. 5000
  • (C) Rs. 5400
  • (D) Rs. 5200

Question 78:

Half of a large pizza is cut into 4 equal-sized pieces, and the other half is cut into 6 equal-sized pieces. If a person were to eat 1 of the larger pieces and 2 of the smaller pieces, what fraction of the pizza would remain uneaten?

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{12} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{13}{24} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{17}{24} \)

Question 79:

A bag contains 15 White balls, 5 Red balls. A ball is drawn at random. Probability in percentage that the drawn ball be a white ball is

  • (A) 75%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 70%
  • (D) 80%

Question 80:

Two dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability that the sum of outcomes is 3.

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{18} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{6} \)

Question 81:

A certain financial institution reported that its assets totaled Rs.2,377,366.30 on a certain day. Of this amount, Rs.31,724.54 was held in cash. Approximately what percent of the reported assets was held in cash on that day?

  • (A) 0.00013%
  • (B) 0.0013%
  • (C) 0.013%
  • (D) 1.3%

Question 82:

The sum of two numbers is 25 and their product is 144. The smaller number is

  • (A) 17
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 12

Question 83:

In the year 2024, the Department Store P had a sales total for December that was 4 times the average (arithmetic mean) of the monthly sales totals for January through November. The sales total for December was what fraction of the sales total for the year?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{4}{15} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{11} \)

Question 84:

In a week, P and Q earn money in the ratio 5 : 4 and their expenses are in the ratio 2 : 1. If they save each Rs. 3000 in the week, then in the week, the incomes of P and Q are (in Rs)

  • (A) 10000, 8000
  • (B) 5000, 4000
  • (C) 8000, 6000
  • (D) 8000, 7000

Question 85:

The lengths of two sides other than the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle are 9 cm and 40 cm. The largest side of the triangle is (in cm)

  • (A) 46
  • (B) 43
  • (C) 41
  • (D) 44

Question 86:

A rectangular field is of length 42m and width 24m. A path of width 2m is formed inside of the land adjoining all the four sides of the land. The remaining area of the field is (in sq. m.)

  • (A) 780
  • (B) 760
  • (C) 860
  • (D) 960

Question 87:

A mixture contains A and B syrups in equal proportion. If a new mixture is created by adding this mixture and B syrup in the ratio of 1:3, then the ratio of A and B syrups in the new mixture is

  • (A) 1 : 7
  • (B) 1 : 6
  • (C) 1 : 5
  • (D) 1 : 4

Question 88:

In a class of 100 students, 73 like apple, 80 like orange, and 52 like grapes. It may be possible that some students do not like any of these three fruits. Find the difference between the maximum and minimum possible number of students who like all three fruits.

  • (A) 47
  • (B) 48
  • (C) 53
  • (D) 52

Question 89:

The value of \( (1125)^2 - (875)^2 \) is equal to

  • (A) 500000
  • (B) 500800
  • (C) 500600
  • (D) 500400

Question 90:

The product of three consecutive positive integers is 720. Then the sum of the three numbers is

  • (A) 27
  • (B) 29
  • (C) 28
  • (D) 32

Question 91:

Person "A" bought an item for Rs. 7250 and paid Rs.250 towards transportation. Then he sold it for Rs.9000. The profit percentage is (in %)

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 10

Question 92:

By selling a product for Rs.1800, the shop owner will have a loss of 10%. How much (in Rs) should he sell it to gain a profit of 25% ?

  • (A) 2450
  • (B) 2550
  • (C) 2750
  • (D) 2500

Question 93:

The sum of two numbers is 40. If one number exceeds another number by 10, then the Least Common Multiple of these two numbers is

  • (A) 75
  • (B) 60
  • (C) 80
  • (D) 125

Question 94:

If the average income of seven families is Rs. 4200 and a family with an income of Rs. 1000 joins them, then the average income of all eight families is (in Rs)

  • (A) 3800
  • (B) 3700
  • (C) 3600
  • (D) 3900

Question 95:

If the base of the triangle is 10 cm and the height of the triangle is 12 cm, then the area of the triangle is (in Sq Cm)

  • (A) 240
  • (B) 120
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 40

Question 96:

Athul invested his savings in two schemes. The simple interest earned on the first scheme at 15% per annum for 4 years is the same as the simple interest earned on the second scheme at 12% per annum for 3 years. Then, the percentage of his savings invested in the first scheme is

  • (A) 60%
  • (B) 37.5%
  • (C) 62.5%
  • (D) 40%

Question 97:

In a panchayat election, there were four candidates, and 80% of the total voters cast their votes. One of the candidates received 30% of the casted votes while the other three candidates received the remaining casted votes in the proportion of 1 : 2 : 3. If the winner of the election received 2512 votes more than the candidate with the second highest votes, then the number of registered voters was

  • (A) 62800
  • (B) 40192
  • (C) 50240
  • (D) 60820

Question 98:

If \( a \) and \( b \) are non-negative real numbers such that \( a + 2b = 6 \), then the average of the maximum and minimum possible values of \( (a + b) \) is

  • (A) 3.5
  • (B) 4.5
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 99:

A glass contains 500 cc of milk and a cup contains 500 cc of water. From the glass, 150 cc of milk is transferred to the cup and mixed thoroughly. Next, 150 cc of this mixture is transferred from the cup to the glass. Now, the amount of water in the glass and the amount of milk in the cup are in the ratio:

  • (A) 3:10
  • (B) 2:1
  • (C) 1:1
  • (D) 1:2

Question 100:

The lengths of all four sides of a quadrilateral are integer values. If three of its sides are of length 1 cm, 2 cm, and 4 cm, then what is the total number of possible lengths of the fourth side?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 101:

Five people L, M, N, O, and P sit in a row, not necessarily in the same order. P sits exactly in between M and N. If L sits exactly in between M and O, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) O sits to the immediate right of M.
  • (B) L and N always sit together.
  • (C) M sits exactly at the middle of the row.
  • (D) P sits between M and L.

Question 102:

About three towns A, B, and C, the information available are: A’s population is twice as B and C’s population is half times as B. Then A’s population compared to C is

  • (A) 4 times
  • (B) 2 times
  • (C) 3 times
  • (D) one and half times

Question 103:

In the following pair of words, identify the pair of words that has same or similar relationship as Chef : Restaurant

  • (A) Doctor : Treatment
  • (B) Driver : Car
  • (C) Writer : Blog
  • (D) Teacher : School

Question 104:

Arrange the following words in a logical sequence.

1. Chair

2. Wood

3. Seed

4. Sapling

5. Tree

  • (A) 35421
  • (B) 34512
  • (C) 34521
  • (D) 43521

Question 105:

If all dogs are ferocious animals and no ferocious animal is a cat, can we infer that no dog is a cat?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) May be
  • (D) Insufficient data

Question 106:

Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G have parked their cars in a row. The cars of E and F should be next to each other. The cars of D and G should be parked next to each other. Whereas A and B cannot park their cars next to each other. But B and D must park their cars next to each other and C’s car is parked to the immediate right of G’s car. If E parks his car to the left of F, then which of the following statements is false?

  • (A) There are two cars in between B and G’s cars
  • (B) B and C’s cars are not parked together
  • (C) G’s car is the only car in between D and C’s cars
  • (D) A’s car is at the left extreme end

Question 107:

Five people A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a row facing the same direction. A is two places away to the right of B. C is two places away to the left of D. E is not sitting at the extreme right. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) Can’t be determined

Question 108:

Five people A through E are sitting in a row facing the same direction. A is three places away to the right of C. Two people are sitting between B and D. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

  • (A) A
  • (B) C
  • (C) E
  • (D) D

Question 109:

If in a certain language, GERMAN is coded as HFSNBO, how is SALEM coded in that language?

  • (A) TBNFM
  • (B) BMFTN
  • (C) STFEN
  • (D) TBMFN

Question 110:

Statements:
I. The water level of the ponds supplying water to the town has increased.

II. Most of the trains are canceled due to heavy rainfall and water logging.

Which of the following options is the correct relationship between the two statements?

  • (A) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
  • (B) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
  • (C) Both the statements are effects of some common cause
  • (D) Both the statements are independent causes

Question 111:

Statements:
I. The government has imported large quantities of rice as per trade contracts with other countries.
II. The prices of rice reduced sharply in the domestic market in recent months.
Which of the following is the correct relationship between the two statements?

  • (A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
  • (B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
  • (C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
  • (D) Both the statements are independent causes

Question 112:

Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence.
1. Selection \hspace{3cm} 2. Probation \hspace{3cm} 3. Appointment \hspace{3cm} 4. Interview \hspace{3cm} 5. Application \hspace{3cm} 6. Advertisement

  • (A) 524316
  • (B) 654132
  • (C) 654312
  • (D) 524136

Question 113:

In a row of twelve boys, a boy is shifted by three places towards the right, then he became sixth from the right end. The earlier position of that boy from the left end of the row is

  • (A) second
  • (B) third
  • (C) fourth
  • (D) fifth

Question 114:

Lakshmanan walked 10 m towards north, then turned right and walked 25 m. Then he turned right and walked 30 m. Now he turned left and walked 10 m. Finally, he turned left and walked 20 m. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?

  • (A) 30m North
  • (B) 35m East
  • (C) 40m North
  • (D) 50m East

Question 115:

If all oranges are apples and some apples are mangoes, can we infer that some oranges are mangoes?

  • (A) No
  • (B) Yes
  • (C) May be
  • (D) Insufficient data

Question 116:

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
A) Rose
B) Lotus
C) Marigold
D) Petal

  • (A) Rose
  • (B) Lotus
  • (C) Marigold
  • (D) Petal

Question 117:

Pointing to a photograph of a man, Gopal said, "His mother is the wife of my father’s son and I have no brother and sister." How is the man in the photograph related to Gopal?

  • (A) Nephew
  • (B) Son
  • (C) Cousin
  • (D) Brother

Question 118:

Question: What is the sum of ages of Murali and Murugan?

Statements:

I. Murali is 5 years older than Murugan.

II. The average of their ages is 25

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to determine the answer
  • (C) Both statements I and II are needed to answer the question
  • (D) Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient

Question 119:

Question: What is the pass mark in the examination?

Statements:

I. A student secures 32% but fails by 6 marks.

II. The total marks is 200.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
  • (C) Data in both the statements together are not sufficient
  • (D) Both statements I and II are needed

Question 120:

Question: What percentage of families in the city have television?

Statements:

I. In the city, 50% of the families own houses.

II. In the city, 25% of the house owners also own televisions.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
  • (C) Data in both the statements together are not sufficient
  • (D) Both statements I and II are needed

Question 121:

Six people, namely P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing north. Further it is known that:
(i) Exactly two people are sitting between P and Q.
(ii) Exactly one person is sitting between T and U.
(iii) Q is sitting at the right end of the row.
If U is sitting adjacent to S, then how many people are sitting between U and R?

  • (A) One
  • (B) Two
  • (C) Three
  • (D) Cant be determined

Question 122:

Eight books on different subjects, such as Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Mathematics, English, Hindi, Zoology, and Economics are stacked together. Further it is known that:
(i) Economics is above Biology which is just above Hindi, which is not at the bottom.
(ii) There are only two books between the Zoology and the English books.
(iii) The number of books above Chemistry is less than the number of books below it.
(iv) Only Mathematics book is above Zoology.
Which book is at the bottom of the stack?

  • (A) Physics
  • (B) Hindi
  • (C) English
  • (D) Economics

Question 123:

Six buildings of different colours red, yellow, white, blue, green and orange are in a row. Each of these buildings belongs to a different person among A, B, C, D, E, and F. Following is the information known about them.
(i) Green building is three places to the right of A’s building.
(ii) Red building is three places to the right of B’s building.
(iii) White building is three places to the right of F’s building.
(iv) C’s building is adjacent to the orange building.
(v) D’s building is not green. B’s building is not blue.
(vi) E’s building is not adjacent to C’s building but three places away from F’s building.
The red building belongs to:

  • (A) C
  • (B) D
  • (C) E
  • (D) A

Question 124:

In a school there are five classes (class 1 to class 5) and each class has two sections A and B. Each section is accommodated in a different classroom. The classrooms are in a row.

(i) The two sections, A and B of any class are not adjacent to each other.

(ii) Any four consecutive classrooms, accommodate two A sections and two B sections
.
(iii) Class 5 A is three places away from class 1 A and neither of these two is at any of the extreme ends.

(iv) Class 3 B is three places away from class 4 B and neither of these is at any of the extreme ends.

(v) Class 2 B is not at any of the extreme ends.

(vi) Class 2 A is at the extreme right.

(vii) Class 5 A is to the right of class 3 B.

Which class is to the immediate right of class 3 B?

  • (A) 1 A
  • (B) 2 B
  • (C) 5 A
  • (D) 1 B

Question 125:

Statement: Monsoon started late in this season
Conclusions:
I. The climate changed
II. Farming community is happy

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Question 126:

Statement: All successful businessmen are good in time management
Conclusions:
I. All the people who manage the time effectively are successful businessmen.
II. A successful businessman cannot afford to waste time.

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Question 127:

What is the essential part of (that is strongly connected to) ‘Book’?

  • (A) Education
  • (B) Pictures
  • (C) Pages
  • (D) Knowledge

Question 128:

Statement: The City Corporation will supply water only three days a week.
Assumptions:
I. Insufficient water storage in the water bodies due to seasonal rainfall deficit.
II. Infrastructure work in progress.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
  • (D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

Question 129:

Statement: The government policy directed the banking sector to reduce the interest on housing loans.
Assumptions:
I. The government aims to provide houses for all.
II. Each family is given a house already.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
  • (D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

Question 130:

Statement: It is suggested to admit children in school at the age of 5 or more.
Assumptions:
I. At this age, a child is ready to learn new things.
II. The school does not admit children after the age of 5.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
  • (D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

Question 131:

Statement: More road accidents occur by two wheeler motorists.
Arguments:
I. Many two wheeler motorists drive without helmets.
II. Many people drive after consuming alcohol.
Which of the following is the correct answer?

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Neither I nor II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong

Question 132:

Statement: Insurance industry has not grown in the state.
Arguments:
I. A strong public health infrastructure is available at free of cost.
II. People are not educated.
Which of the following is the correct answer?

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Neither I nor II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong

Question 133:

Statement: Electric Vehicle manufacturing got a boom in the industry.
Arguments:
I. The government adopted policy to control carbon emission.
II. The market demands petrol vehicles due to low cost.
Which of the following is the correct answer?

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Neither I nor II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong.

Question 134:

Statement: There must be more than one High Court in each state in India.
Arguments:
I. This will be a sheer wastage of taxpayers’ money.
II. This will help to reduce the backlog of cases pending for a very long time.
Which of the following is the correct answer?

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Neither I nor II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong

Question 135:

If every book buyer has a good reading habit and everyone with good reading habit visits libraries, can we infer that all who visit libraries are book buyers?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) May be
  • (D) Insufficient data

Question 136:

In the following pair of words, identify the pair of words that has the same or similar relationship as Petal: Flower

  • (A) Pen : Paper
  • (B) Engine : Car
  • (C) Cat : Dog
  • (D) Ball : Game

Question 137:

Question: What is the population of state A?
Statements:
I. Population of state A is 60% of the population of state B.
II. Population of States A and B together is 10 crores.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
  • (C) Data in both the statements together are not sufficient
  • (D) Both statements I and II are needed

Question 138:

Statement: Summer vacation is necessary for school children.

Conclusions:

I. School children should help parents in their everyday activities.

II. School children need rest in the hot summer.

Which of the following is the correct answer?

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Question 139:

A group of five people, namely A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a row facing north. The following information is known about them:

(i) Only D is sitting between A and B.

(ii) Neither A nor B is at the ends.

(iii) C is sitting to the immediate left of B.

Who is sitting at the right end of the row?

  • (A) A
  • (B) E
  • (C) B
  • (D) C

Question 140:

Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V sit on a bench facing north. Each of them is of a different weight (in kg), their random bodily weights are 79, 83, 85, 87, 89, 92, and 96. The following information is known about them:

- P sits third to the right of the heaviest person.

- The heaviest person sits exactly between R and the lightest person, who sits at an end.

- The third lightest person sits adjacent to R and that person is neither P nor adjacent to P.

- Q sits third to the left of the person whose weight is the next higher to R.

- R’s weight is neither 83 kg nor 87 kg.

- P’s weight is neither 92 kg nor 79 kg.

- T’s weight is 83 kg.

- S is heavier than V but is not the heaviest.

Question: Who is the third lightest?

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 141:

Which ministry has received the highest budgetary allocation in the Union Budget of India 2025-2026?

  • (A) Ministry of Railways
  • (B) Ministry of Defence
  • (C) Ministry of Home Affairs
  • (D) Ministry of Rural Development

Question 142:

Which among the following rivers originate in Kerala and enters into Karnataka?

  • (A) Periyar River
  • (B) Kabani River
  • (C) Pampa River
  • (D) Meenachil River

Question 143:

The National Anthem of India, Jana-Gana-Mana, was originally composed by Rabindranath Tagore in

  • (A) Sanskrit
  • (B) Hindi
  • (C) Bengali
  • (D) Sindhi

Question 144:

The ratio of width of the Indian national Flag to its length is

  • (A) One to three
  • (B) Two to five
  • (C) Two to three
  • (D) Three to five

Question 145:

Currently, the Election Commission of India consists of

  • (A) Chief Election Commissioner and four Election Commissioners
  • (B) Chief Election Commissioner and one Election Commissioner
  • (C) Chief Election Commissioner and three Election Commissioners
  • (D) Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners

Question 146:

UNICEF stands for

  • (A) United Nations International Children’s Education Federation
  • (B) United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
  • (C) United Nations Intercontinental Children’s Emergency Fund
  • (D) United Nations International Children’s Emergency Federation

Question 147:

The Capital of Bhutan is

  • (A) Trongsa
  • (B) Phuentsholing
  • (C) Paro
  • (D) Thimphu

Question 148:

In India, the Chairperson of the Permanent House is

  • (A) the Vice President of India
  • (B) the President of India
  • (C) the Loksabha Speaker
  • (D) the Prime Minister

Question 149:

The current Secretary General of the United Nations is

  • (A) Ban Ki-moon
  • (B) Kofi Annan
  • (C) Antonio Guterres
  • (D) Kurt Waldheim

Question 150:

National Sports University is located at

  • (A) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (B) West Bengal
  • (C) Assam
  • (D) Manipur

Question 151:

Nephrology is the study associated with

  • (A) Brain
  • (B) Kidney
  • (C) Liver
  • (D) Bones

Question 152:

The author of the Malayalam novel ‘Naalukettu’ is

  • (A) M.T. Vasudevan Nair
  • (B) O.N.V. Kurupp
  • (C) Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
  • (D) S.K. Pottekkattu

Question 153:

The Constitution of India allows for a maximum of

  • (A) 650 Elected members in the Lok Sabha
  • (B) 580 Elected members in the Lok Sabha
  • (C) 590 Elected members in the Lok Sabha
  • (D) 550 Elected members in the Lok Sabha

Question 154:

Which of the following is a disease not caused by viruses?

  • (A) AIDS
  • (B) CoVID-19
  • (C) Smallpox
  • (D) Tuberculosis

Question 155:

The main role of the Securities and Exchange Board of India is to protect the interests of

  • (A) Investors in Securities
  • (B) National security
  • (C) Banks
  • (D) Public Sector Units

Question 156:

A stock exchange is a marketplace where

  • (A) Stocks and Bonds are sold only
  • (B) Stocks and Bonds are sold and bought
  • (C) The investors stock their holdings
  • (D) The investors register their holdings

Question 157:

Every Judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by

  • (A) Law Ministry of Government of India
  • (B) the Chief Justice of India
  • (C) the President of India
  • (D) the Prime Minister of India

Question 158:

Which one of the following Indian Cities is known as City of Lakes?

  • (A) Hyderabad
  • (B) Udaipur
  • (C) Kashmir
  • (D) Alappuzha

Question 159:

The NITI Aayog stands for

  • (A) National Institution for Transforming India
  • (B) National Integration for Transformation of India
  • (C) National Information Transformation Institute
  • (D) National Institute for Transition in India

Question 160:

Wheat Blast, recently seen in the news, is a disease of wheat crop caused by which one of the following?

  • (A) Fungus
  • (B) Bacteria
  • (C) Virus
  • (D) Helminths

Question 161:

What is the name of the scheme established by the Supreme Court of India to ensure the safety of witnesses facing threats?

  • (A) Safety Assurance Scheme
  • (B) Witness Protection Scheme
  • (C) Witness Security Programme
  • (D) Judicial Witness Guard

Question 162:

Which institution issues the Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) on behalf of the government?

  • (A) RBI
  • (B) SEBI
  • (C) NITI Aayog
  • (D) BSE

Question 163:

Which state organized the 38th edition of the National Games in 2025?

  • (A) Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Uttarakhand
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh

Question 164:

FIFA World Cup 2026 will be hosted by which one of the following countries?

  • (A) Canada, Mexico, and the United States
  • (B) Italy and France
  • (C) Saudi Arabia
  • (D) Russia

Question 165:

Antarctic research station, the Qinling facility is owned by

  • (A) China
  • (B) Japan
  • (C) Taiwan
  • (D) Russia

Question 166:

Which institution manages the unclaimed deposits in India?

  • (A) SEBI
  • (B) RBI
  • (C) Ministry of Finance
  • (D) BSE

Question 167:

Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative of which ministry?

  • (A) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
  • (B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • (C) Ministry of Finance
  • (D) Ministry of Communications

Question 168:

Uber has launched India’s first water transport service, “Uber Shikara” in which lake?

  • (A) Vembanad Lake
  • (B) Chilika Lake
  • (C) Dal Lake
  • (D) Pangong Lake

Question 169:

The government has recently abolished the windfall tax on which products?

  • (A) Food Products
  • (B) Petrol, diesel, aviation fuel, and crude oil
  • (C) Pharmaceuticals
  • (D) None of the Above

Question 170:

The title “Father of the Nation” to Gandhiji was given by who among the following?

  • (A) C.R. Das
  • (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (C) R.N. Tagore
  • (D) S.C. Bose

Question 171:

Which of the following is a correct sequence of sea ports of India from “South to North”?

  • (A) Calicut – Thiruvananthapuram – Cochin – Mangalore
  • (B) Cochin – Thiruvananthapuram – Calicut – Mangalore
  • (C) Thiruvananthapuram – Cochin – Calicut – Mangalore
  • (D) Thiruvananthapuram – Calicut – Mangalore – Cochin

Question 172:

Which among the following is the major cause of acid rain?

  • (A) Carbon monoxide
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Nitrogen dioxide
  • (D) Helium

Question 173:

“Starship” spacecraft, recently seen in the news, is built by which organization?

  • (A) SpaceX
  • (B) NASA
  • (C) DRDO
  • (D) ISRO

Question 174:

Which country has developed an mRNA vaccine for cancer patients recently?

  • (A) India
  • (B) China
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) Russia

Question 175:

Who among the following are the main beneficiaries of the “Reverse Mortgage Scheme”?

  • (A) Working Government Employees
  • (B) Senior Citizens
  • (C) Students
  • (D) Foreign Investors

Question 176:

What is the main purpose of EXIM bank?

  • (A) Finance Infrastructure
  • (B) Finance the Exports
  • (C) Finance agriculture
  • (D) Finance MSME

Question 177:

What is the number of sellers in a monopoly market structure?

  • (A) one
  • (B) two
  • (C) three
  • (D) more than ten

Question 178:

Which among the following formulates fiscal policy?

  • (A) RBI
  • (B) SEBI
  • (C) IRDA
  • (D) Ministry of Finance

Question 179:

BT seed is associated with?

  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Cotton
  • (C) Lotus
  • (D) Wheat

Question 180:

Recently, which organization has released Financial inclusion index?

  • (A) Reserve Bank of India
  • (B) Ministry of Finance
  • (C) NABARD
  • (D) SEBI