KMAT Kerala 2024 question paper along with the solution PDF is available here to download in pdf form.

The KMAT 2025 exam is divided into four sections: Data Sufficiency and Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language Usage and Reading Comprehension, and General Knowledge and Current Affairs. The KMAT 2025 exam is a total of 720 marks.

KMAT Kerala 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF

KMAT Kerala 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Solution PDF

KMAT Kerala 2024 Questions with Solution

Question 1:

Identify the correctly spelled word:

  • (A) Relevent
  • (B) Relavent
  • (C) Relevant
  • (D) Relavant

Question 2:

Choose the correctly spelled word from the options below:

  • (A) Neccessary
  • (B) Necesary
  • (C) Necessary
  • (D) Neccesary

Question 3:

Identify the correctly spelled word:

  • (A) Consciece
  • (B) Conscience
  • (C) Consience
  • (D) Consciense

Question 4:

Find the correctly spelled word:

  • (A) Persuade
  • (B) Persuaid
  • (C) Persuadee
  • (D) Perswade

Question 5:

Identify the misspelled word in the list below:

  • (A) Accommodate
  • (B) Mischievous
  • (C) Embarras
  • (D) Irresistible

Question 6:

Identify the word that has the same meaning as "FORTITUDE" in the list given below:

  • (A) Courage
  • (B) Deceit
  • (C) Frivolity
  • (D) Ambivalence

Question 7:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the word "PRECISE" from the options provided:

  • (A) Ambiguous
  • (B) Accurate
  • (C) Vague
  • (D) Dubious

Question 8:

Find the word with a similar meaning to "BENEVOLENT" in the list below:

  • (A) Malevolent
  • (B) Hostile
  • (C) Friendly
  • (D) Pessimistic

Question 9:

Find the word with a similar meaning to "EXUBERANT" from the options below:

  • (A) Dull
  • (B) Energetic
  • (C) Hesitant
  • (D) Melancholic

Question 10:

Identify the word that has a similar meaning to "PEACEFUL" in the options provided:

  • (A) Chaotic
  • (B) Tranquil
  • (C) Aggressive
  • (D) Turbulent

Question 11:

Choose the word that is synonymous with "CUNNING" from the list below:

  • (A) Honest
  • (B) Devious
  • (C) Transparent
  • (D) Naive

Question 12:

Identify the word with the opposite meaning to "EVIDENT" in the list provided:

  • (A) Obvious
  • (B) Concealed
  • (C) Clear
  • (D) Apparent

Question 13:

Find the word that has an opposite meaning to "HARMONY" from the options below:

  • (A) Discord
  • (B) Unity
  • (C) Accord
  • (D) Consensus

Question 14:

Choose the word that has opposite meaning to "FRAUDULENT" in the list given below:

  • (A) Dishonest
  • (B) Trustworthy
  • (C) Deceptive
  • (D) Unethical

Question 15:

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: She suggested, "Why don't we go for a walk?"

  • (A) She said, "Let us go for a walk."
  • (B) She said, "Why not we go for a walk?"
  • (C) She said, "Shall we go for a walk?"
  • (D) She said, "Why don't we went for a walk."

Question 16:

Change the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: He advised, "You should study regularly to do well in exams."

  • (A) He said, "You should study regularly to do well in exams."
  • (B) He said, "Study regularly to do well in exams."
  • (C) He said, "You must study regularly for success in exams."
  • (D) He said, "To do well in exams, you should study regularly."

Question 17:

Convert the sentence into INDIRECT SPEECH: She said, "I will visit my grandmother tomorrow."

  • (A) She stated that she would visit her grandmother the next day.
  • (B) She announced, "I will visit my grandmother tomorrow."
  • (C) She declared that she is visiting her grandmother tomorrow.
  • (D) She mentioned that she will visit her grandmother tomorrow.

Question 18:

Change the sentence into INDIRECT SPEECH: Tom exclaimed, "What a surprise!"

  • (A) Tom exclaimed that it was a surprise.
  • (B) Tom exclaimed, "What a surprising event!"
  • (C) Tom exclaimed, "How surprising it was!"
  • (D) Tom exclaimed, "What a surprise!" remained unchanged.

Question 19:

Identify the Mood and Tense of the verb in the following sentence: "May you have a wonderful day!"

  • (A) Imperative, Simple Past
  • (B) Subjunctive, Present Continuous
  • (C) Imperative, Simple Present
  • (D) Subjunctive, Future Perfect

Question 20:

Convert the sentence into ACTIVE VOICE: "The cake was baked by the chef."

  • (A) The chef bakes the cake.
  • (B) The chef baked the cake.
  • (C) The chef is baking the cake.
  • (D) The chef had baked the cake.

Question 21:

Change the sentence into ACTIVE VOICE: A solution will be found by our team.

  • (A) Our team is finding a solution.
  • (B) Our team finds a solution.
  • (C) Our team found a solution.
  • (D) Our team will find a solution.

Question 22:

Convert the sentence given in the question into PASSIVE VOICE: Who created this?

  • (A) By whom was this create?
  • (B) By whom was this being created?
  • (C) By whom was this created?
  • (D) By whom is this created?

Question 23:

The following question has two blanks. Choose the words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. She is …… to become …… successful entrepreneur in the future.

  • (A) ambitious, a
  • (B) aspiring, the
  • (C) eager, a
  • (D) reluctant, the

Question 24:

The following question has two blanks. Choose the words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. …… is the first step towards wisdom, and …… is the key to success.

  • (A) Patience, perseverance
  • (B) Perseverance, patience
  • (C) Wisdom, perseverance
  • (D) Success, patience

Question 25:

The following question has two blanks. Choose the words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. …… is the ability to adapt to change, and …… is the strength to initiate it.

  • (A) Flexibility, innovation
  • (B) Innovation, flexibility
  • (C) Creativity, resilience
  • (D) Resilience, creativity

Question 26:

The following question has two blanks. Choose the words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. She has been an inspiration to many, proving that with determination and passion, anyone can overcome …… obstacles and achieve …… goals.

  • (A) insurmountable, their
  • (B) daunting, his
  • (C) formidable, her
  • (D) overwhelming, its

Question 27:

Choose the words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. …… is crucial in building a strong team, and …… is essential for maintaining a healthy work environment.

  • (A) Communication, cooperation
  • (B) Cooperation, communication
  • (C) Trust, collaboration
  • (D) Collaboration, trust

Question 28:

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. The success of any project depends on …… planning and …… execution.

  • (A) meticulous, flawless
  • (B) meticulous, careful
  • (C) haphazard, careful
  • (D) detailed, flawless

Question 29:

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. …… is the key to unlocking potential, and …… is the pathway to continuous improvement.

  • (A) Reflection, feedback
  • (B) Feedback, reflection
  • (C) Practice, critique
  • (D) Critique, practice

Question 30:

Reorder the parts to create a coherent sentence: A: for various health benefits B: meditation is practiced C: such as reducing stress D: worldwide

  • (A) BCDA
  • (B) DCAB
  • (C) ACBD
  • (D) DABC

Question 31:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful sentence: A: enjoy various B: tourists can C: outdoor activities D: during their stay

  • (A) BACD
  • (B) DCBA
  • (C) ACBD
  • (D) DACB

Question 32:

Read the passage and answer the question.

In a small village, there was a scarcity of water, and the only well in the vicinity was often dry during the hot summer months. The villagers, tired of this recurring problem, decided to take matters into their own hands. They organized a community initiative to build a reservoir to store water during the rainy season and provide a steady supply throughout the year. The project required teamwork and dedication, but the villagers were determined to overcome the water crisis. With a collective effort, they completed the reservoir, ensuring that every household had access to water even in the driest months.

The villagers' initiative demonstrates their commitment to:

  • (A) Agricultural development
  • (B) Community welfare
  • (C) Industrial expansion
  • (D) Environmental conservation

Question 33:

Read the passage and answer the question.

A group of young activists started a campaign to raise awareness about the importance of recycling in their neighborhood. They conducted workshops, distributed pamphlets, and organized community clean-up events. Their efforts aimed to encourage residents to adopt sustainable practices and reduce waste. As a result of their campaign, more households began sorting and recycling their waste, contributing to a cleaner and greener environment.

The activists' campaign primarily focused on promoting:

  • (A) Renewable energy
  • (B) Wildlife conservation
  • (C) Environmental awareness
  • (D) Air pollution control

Question 34:

Read the passage and answer the question.

In a remote village, where access to healthcare was limited, a group of dedicated volunteers established a mobile medical clinic. The clinic visited the village regularly, providing free medical check-ups and consultations and distributing essential medicines. The villagers, who previously had to travel long distances for medical assistance, greatly benefited from this initiative.

The mobile clinic initiative reflects the volunteers' commitment to:

  • (A) Educational development
  • (B) Public transportation
  • (C) Healthcare accessibility
  • (D) Agricultural reform

Question 35:

Read the passage and answer the question.

A group of young entrepreneurs initiated a project to empower local artisans to preserve traditional craftsmanship. They collaborated with skilled artisans to create a platform where their handmade products could reach a wider market. The artisans gained economic independence through this initiative, and traditional art forms thrived.

The entrepreneurs' project primarily focused on promoting:

  • (A) Economic diversity
  • (B) Globalization
  • (C) Technological innovation
  • (D) Cultural heritage

Question 36:

Read the passage and answer the question.

In a society where gender stereotypes were prevalent, many students started a campaign to challenge these norms. They organized workshops, discussions, and awareness programs to promote gender equality and empower individuals to break free from traditional expectations.

The students' campaign primarily aimed at challenging:

  • (A) Educational policies
  • (B) Racial discrimination
  • (C) Gender stereotypes
  • (D) Environmental degradation

Question 37:

Read the passage and answer the question.

A group of environmentally conscious citizens initiated a tree-planting campaign to combat the rising pollution levels in their city. They encouraged residents to participate in the drive, providing saplings and guidance on suitable planting locations. The campaign aimed to enhance green cover, reduce air pollution, and create a healthier living environment.

The citizens' initiative primarily focused on addressing:

  • (A) Traffic congestion
  • (B) Noise pollution
  • (C) Deforestation
  • (D) Air pollution

Question 38:

Read the passage and answer the question.

Concerned about the lack of educational resources in underserved communities, a group of teachers launched a mobile library project. They traveled to remote areas, offering books and educational materials to children without access to formal schooling. The project aimed to bridge the educational gap and promote a love for learning among disadvantaged children.

The teachers' initiative primarily focused on addressing:

  • (A) Economic inequality
  • (B) Healthcare disparities
  • (C) Educational accessibility
  • (D) Cultural preservation

Question 39:

Read the passage and answer the question.

In a world grappling with the effects of climate change, a team of scientists initiated a research project to develop sustainable agricultural practices. They focused on creating methods that enhance crop yields while minimizing environmental impact. The project aimed to offer solutions for ensuring food security in the face of climate challenges.

The scientists' initiative primarily focused on addressing:

  • (A) Technological innovation
  • (B) Biodiversity conservation
  • (C) Climate change adaptation
  • (D) Urbanization challenges

Question 40:

Read the passage and answer the question.

Recognizing the importance of mental health awareness, a group of mental health professionals launched a campaign to destigmatize mental health issues. Through seminars, online resources, and community events, they aimed to promote open discussions and provide support for those struggling with mental health challenges.

The professionals' campaign primarily focused on addressing:

  • (A) Physical disabilities
  • (B) Social inequality
  • (C) Mental health stigma
  • (D) Substance abuse

Question 41:

Read the passage and answer the question.

Amid concerns about declining civic engagement, a group of citizens initiated a project encouraging active participation in community affairs. They organized town hall meetings, volunteer opportunities, and information sessions to foster a sense of community responsibility.

The citizens' project primarily focused on addressing:

  • (A) Technological advancements
  • (B) Political apathy
  • (C) Environmental degradation
  • (D) Economic inequality

Question 42:

Identify the sentence with the same meaning. She finished her homework and then went to the library.

  • (A) Before going to the library, she finished her homework.
  • (B) Before she finished her homework, she went to the library.
  • (C) After going to the library, she finished her homework.
  • (D) She went to the library before finishing her homework.

Question 43:

Identify the sentence with the same meaning. The team won the championship, and then they celebrated at the local restaurant.

  • (A) Before celebrating at the local restaurant, the team won the championship.
  • (B) The team celebrated at the local restaurant after winning the championship.
  • (C) After celebrating at the local restaurant, the team won the championship.
  • (D) Celebrating at the local restaurant, the team won the championship.

Question 44:

Identify the sentence with the same meaning. Maria finished her workout, and then she took a refreshing shower.

  • (A) Taking a refreshing shower, Maria finished her workout.
  • (B) Before taking a refreshing shower, Maria finished her workout.
  • (C) Maria took a refreshing shower before finishing her workout.
  • (D) After taking a refreshing shower, Maria finished her workout.

Question 45:

Identify the word that can be substituted for the given words/sentence. The act of giving up one's country or leaving to reside in another.

  • (A) Immigration
  • (B) Emigration
  • (C) Expatriation
  • (D) Repatriation

Question 46:

Out of four alternatives, choose the one that can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous.

  • (A) Evade
  • (B) Evacuate
  • (C) Avoid
  • (D) Exterminate

Question 47:

Choose the word that can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A state of being unconscious for a long time.

  • (A) Coma
  • (B) Stupor
  • (C) Hibernation
  • (D) Dormancy

Question 48:

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.

The smell of freshly baked bread wafted __________ the bakery, making everyone in the neighborhood hungry.

  • (A) through
  • (B) along
  • (C) by
  • (D) from

Question 49:

Identify the correct sentence among the options.

  • (A) She don't like to go shopping on weekends.
  • (B) Despite of the rain, they decided to go for a hike.
  • (C) The movie was so boring, and I can't understand why people like it.
  • (D) He plays guitar better than me.

Question 50:

Identify the sentence with the correct use of punctuation.

  • (A) She told him, "I'll be there by 3 pm."
  • (B) Despite the storm they decided to go out.
  • (C) The teacher said the assignment is due tomorrow.
  • (D) Walking in the park, a bird flew overhead.

Question 51:

If Alice is currently 30 years old and twice the age her son Ben will be in 5 years, in 10 years, how many times will Alice’s age be compared to Ben’s?

  • (A) 2.5 times
  • (B) 1.5 times
  • (C) 2 times
  • (D) 3 times
  • (D) Given that Alice’s age is twice Ben’s age in 5 years: \[ 30 = 2(x + 5) \]
  • (E) Solving for x: \[ 30 = 2x + 10 \] \[ 2x = 20 \Rightarrow x = 10 \] \textbf{Step 2:} Find their ages in 10 years.

Question 52:

A can complete a task in 6 days, B can complete it in 8 days, and C can complete it in 12 days. If they all work together, how many days will be required to complete the task?

  • (A) 5 days approx
  • (B) 2 days approx
  • (C) 4 days approx
  • (D) 3 days approx

Question 53:

A machine can produce 200 units per hour, while another machine can produce 300 units per hour. How many units will be produced if they operate together for 3 hours?

  • (A) 1500
  • (B) 1200
  • (C) 900
  • (D) 1800

Question 54:

A can do a job in 20 days, B can do it in 30 days, and C can do it in 40 days. If they all work together for 8 days, what fraction of the job remains?

  • (A) 2/15
  • (B) 5/12
  • (C) 13/15
  • (D) 7/12

Question 55:

A number divided by 180 gives a remainder of 98. What will the remainder be if the same number is divided by 15?

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 10

Question 56:

How many numbers between 400 and 800 are divisible by 13?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 31
  • (C) 32
  • (D) 33

Question 57:

If three-fifth of a number is 540, find one-sixth of the number.

  • (A) 200
  • (B) 250
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 150

Question 58:

If A travels 324 km in 12 hours of driving, what distance will he travel in 5 hours at the same speed?

  • (A) 125 km
  • (B) 150 km
  • (C) 135 km
  • (D) 100 km

Question 59:

A vessel contains 24 litres of milk and water in the ratio 5:3. How much water should be added so that the ratio becomes 1:1?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 60:

The ages of Jack and Jill are in the ratio 5:4. What will be the ratio of their ages after 6 years if Jack is now elder to Jill by 4 years?

  • (A) 13:11
  • (B) 12:11
  • (C) 11:10
  • (D) 10:9

Question 61:

The number 2*056 is divisible by 11. Which is the digit at the * sign?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5

Question 62:

How many times should the keys of the keyboard be pressed to enter the first 300 counting numbers?

  • (A) 795
  • (B) 889
  • (C) 788
  • (D) 792

Question 63:

Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 4, 5, 6, and 7?

  • (A) 1260
  • (B) 1340
  • (C) 1080
  • (D) 1400

Question 64:

Five alarms sound together at intervals of 5, 10, 15, 20, and 25 minutes respectively. At most, how many times will they all sound together in 2 hours?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 0

Question 65:

What fraction of 1 km is 400m?

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) 2/5
  • (C) 1/3
  • (D) 1/2

Question 66:

The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3:2 and their expenses are in the ratio 5:3. If each saves Rs. 700,000, what is the income of A?

  • (A) Rs. 40 lakh
  • (B) Rs. 45 lakh
  • (C) Rs. 42 lakh
  • (D) Rs. 35 lakh

Question 67:

If 15 men do a work in 9 days, 5 men can do the same work in how many days?

  • (A) 3 days
  • (B) 45 days
  • (C) 27 days
  • (D) 30 days

Question 68:

Determine the compound interest on Rs. 6 lakh for one year at 8% p.a. interest compounded half-yearly.

  • (A) 48000
  • (B) 48600
  • (C) 48860
  • (D) 48960

Question 69:

A train running at a speed of 72 kmph passes a telegraphic pole in 8 seconds. How much time will it take to cross a bridge of 180m?

  • (A) 9 seconds
  • (B) 17 seconds
  • (C) 8 seconds
  • (D) 15 seconds

Question 70:

Two trains start at 10 am from two stations and travel towards each other at speeds 40 kmph and 60 kmph. If the two stations are 400 km apart, when will they meet?

  • (A) 1 pm
  • (B) 12 noon
  • (C) 2 pm
  • (D) 1:30 pm

Question 71:

A person walks a certain distance and cycles back, taking a total time of 90 minutes. He could walk both ways in 120 minutes. How long will it take for him to ride both ways?

  • (A) 45 minutes
  • (B) 75 minutes
  • (C) 40 minutes
  • (D) 60 minutes

Question 72:

John sold a product for 15% profit. If he had sold it for Rs. 600 more, he would have made 25% profit. What is the cost price of the product?

  • (A) Rs. 6000
  • (B) Rs. 3000
  • (C) Rs. 5000
  • (D) Rs. 4500

Question 73:

What was the original price of a product sold for Rs. 1200 if the seller gave a discount of 25%?

  • (A) Rs. 1500
  • (B) Rs. 2500
  • (C) Rs. 900
  • (D) Rs. 1600

Question 74:

The value of equipment is Rs. 1 crore. If depreciation is calculated at 10% annually using the written-down value method, what will be the value after 3 years?

  • (A) Rs. 72.9 lakh
  • (B) Rs. 70 lakh
  • (C) Rs. 65.7 lakh
  • (D) Rs. 75.6 lakh

Question 75:

A number is doubled and 9 is added. If the resultant is trebled, it becomes 75. What is that number?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) -3.5
  • (D) None of these

Question 76:

When 25 is subtracted from 50% of a number, the result is 25. Find the number.

  • (A) 75
  • (B) 100
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 60

Question 77:

If the price of a product is first increased by 20% and then by 10%, what is the total increase?

  • (A) 30%
  • (B) 31%
  • (C) 32%
  • (D) 33%

Question 78:

A factory can produce 1000 units per day, while another factory can produce 1500 units per day. If they work together for 2 days, what fraction will be left if the total production required is 15000 units?

  • (A) 1/3
  • (B) 2/3
  • (C) 1/5
  • (D) 2/5

Question 79:

If A can paint a room in 8 hours and B can paint the same room in 10 hours, how much of the room remains unpainted if they work together for 3 hours?

  • (A) 2/35
  • (B) 1/3
  • (C) 13/35
  • (D) 13/40

Question 80:

A contractor can finish building a house in 60 days, while his assistant can finish it in 90 days. If they work together for 15 days, what fraction of the work is remaining?

  • (A) 5/12
  • (B) 7/12
  • (C) 2/3
  • (D) 1/2

Question 81:

X can complete a project in 12 days and Y can complete it in 18 days. If they work together for 6 days, what fraction of the project remains unfinished?

  • (A) 5/4
  • (B) 1/6
  • (C) 1/3
  • (D) 1/2

Question 82:

Sarah's age is now five times that of her nephew Jack. If Jack will be 11 years old in 3 years, how old will Sarah be then?

  • (A) 43 years
  • (B) 48 years
  • (C) 53 years
  • (D) 58 years

Question 83:

If Thomas is currently 20 years old and twice the age of his sister Mary, how old will Mary be in 5 years?

  • (A) 10 years
  • (B) 15 years
  • (C) 20 years
  • (D) 25 years

Question 84:

David is currently twice the age of his brother Daniel. If Daniel is 10 years old, how old will David be in 5 years?

  • (A) 15 years
  • (B) 20 years
  • (C) 25 years
  • (D) 30 years

Question 85:

Janaki's age is three times that of her daughter Sita. If Sita will be 15 years old in 5 years, how old will Janaki be in 5 years?

  • (A) 45 years
  • (B) 40 years
  • (C) 50 years
  • (D) 35 years

Question 86:

A printer can complete a printing work in 9 hours, while another printer can do it in 12 hours. If they work together for 4 hours, what fraction of the work will be completed?

  • (A) 2/9
  • (B) 2/3
  • (C) 1/3
  • (D) 7/9

Question 87:

Worker P can complete a task in 10 days, and worker Q can complete the same task in 15 days. If they work together for 5 days, what fraction of the task remains to be done?

  • (A) 2/3
  • (B) 1/5
  • (C) 1/6
  • (D) 5/6

Question 88:

In a class of 150 students, 55 speak English, 85 speak Malayalam and 30 speak neither English nor Malayalam. How many students speak both English and Malayalam?

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 45

Question 89:

In a certain class, 40% of students take coffee, 40% take tea, 50% take milk, and 10% take all three. Also, 20% take coffee and tea, 20% take tea and milk, and 20% take coffee and milk. 10 students do not take any of the three. How many students are there in the class?

  • (A) 100
  • (B) 90
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 40

Question 90:

If Jack walks at 4 kmph he reaches the bus stop 10 minutes late. Starting from home at the same time, if he walks at 6 kmph, he reaches the bus stop 5 minutes early. What is the distance he walks to the bus stop?

  • (A) 4 km
  • (B) 6 km
  • (C) 5 km
  • (D) 3 km

Question 91:

A train covers 400 metres in 40 seconds. What is the speed of the train in kmph?

  • (A) 40
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 30

Question 92:

A bus leaves city A at 11:20 am and arrives at city B 240 km away at 4:20 pm on the same day. What is the average speed of the bus for the journey?

  • (A) 48 kmph
  • (B) 36 kmph
  • (C) 50 kmph
  • (D) 44 kmph

Question 93:

A takes half as long as B to do a piece of work. Together they can complete the work in 12 days. How many days will A take if he does the work alone?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 15

Question 94:

If the perimeter of a rectangle is 48 cm and its length is twice its breadth, what is its area?

  • (A) 130 sq. cm
  • (B) 120 sq. cm
  • (C) 150 sq. cm
  • (D) 128 sq. cm

Question 95:

If the area of a rectangle is 60 sq. cm and its length is 4 cm more than its breadth, what is its perimeter?

  • (A) 30 cm
  • (B) 32 cm
  • (C) 36 cm
  • (D) 38 cm

Question 96:

A certain sum of money becomes Rs. 28,000 in 4 years at 10% simple interest. What is the principal amount?

  • (A) Rs. 20,000
  • (B) Rs. 18,000
  • (C) Rs. 15,000
  • (D) Rs. 16,000

Question 97:

A company's revenue increased by 25% from last year to this year. If the revenue this year is Rs. 500,000, what was the revenue last year?

  • (A) Rs. 300,000
  • (B) Rs. 450,000
  • (C) Rs. 400,000
  • (D) Rs. 375,000

Question 98:

The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 24. What is the largest of these numbers?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 28
  • (C) 32
  • (D) 26

Question 99:

A bag contains 5 red balls, 4 green balls, and 3 blue balls. If one ball is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is not blue?

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) 3/4
  • (C) 1/3
  • (D) 7/12

Question 100:

The sum of two numbers is 35, and their difference is 5. What are the two numbers?

  • (A) 20, 15
  • (B) 18, 17
  • (C) 10, 15
  • (D) 25, 20

Question 101:

If all MBA students are hardworking, and John is hardworking, can we conclude that John is an MBA student?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 102:

If some managers are leaders and all leaders are good decision-makers, can we infer that some managers are good decision-makers?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 103:

If A is twice as old as B, and C is half the age of A, how many times older is A compared to C?

  • (A) 4 times
  • (B) 2 times
  • (C) 1.5 times
  • (D) 3 times

Question 104:

If all finance majors are good at math, and some good-at-math people are not finance majors, can we conclude that all finance majors are good at math?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 105:

If no athletes are doctors, and some doctors are musicians, can we infer that no athletes are musicians?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 106:

If every student who studies hard gets good grades, and Mary gets good grades, can we conclude that Mary studied hard?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 107:

If no artists are scientists, and some scientists are writers, can we infer that no artists are writers?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 108:

If the average age of a group of 5 people is 30 years, and one person leaves the group, what is the new average age?

  • (A) 28 years
  • (B) 30 years
  • (C) 32 years
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 109:

If 60% of students in a class are female, and 40% of the females wear glasses, what percentage of the class wears glasses?

  • (A) 60%
  • (B) 40%
  • (C) 24%
  • (D) 36%

Question 110:

If some graduates are employed and all employed people are financially stable, can we infer that some graduates are financially stable?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 111:

If all leaders are good communicators, and some good communicators are not leaders, can we conclude that some leaders are not good communicators?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 112:

If 20% of a company's employees are managers, and 10% of the managers are also team leaders, what percentage of the employees are both managers and team leaders?

  • (A) 10%
  • (B) 2%
  • (C) 20%
  • (D) 0.2%

Question 113:

If every successful entrepreneur is innovative, and John is innovative, can we conclude that John is a successful entrepreneur?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 114:

If all MBA students are ambitious, and some ambitious people are not MBA students, can we infer that some MBA students are not ambitious?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 115:

If some employees are satisfied with their jobs, and all satisfied employees are productive, can we infer that some employees are productive?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 116:

If no graduates are unemployed, and some unemployed people are not graduates, can we conclude that some graduates are employed?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 117:

If all leaders are strategic thinkers, and some strategic thinkers are not leaders, can we infer that some leaders are not strategic thinkers?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 118:

If 25% of students like math, and 60% of those who like math also like science, what percentage of students like both math and science?

  • (A) 15%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 60%
  • (D) 75%

Question 119:

If every candidate who completes the training program gets a job, and Tom got a job, can we conclude that Tom completed the training program?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 120:

If no scholars are athletes, and some athletes are musicians, can we infer that no scholars are musicians?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) Maybe
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 121:

In the question below, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Statement: All students in the class passed the exam. Conclusions: I. Every student is good at academics. II. No student failed the exam.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If either I or II follows
  • (D) If neither I nor II follows

Question 122:

In the question below, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Statement: The train arrived late at the station. Conclusions: I. The train schedule was disrupted. II. Passengers were unhappy with the delay.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If either I or II follows
  • (D) If neither I nor II follows

Question 123:

In the question below, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Statement: All actors are trained in performing arts. Conclusions: I. Every person trained in performing arts is an actor. II. Some actors may not be trained in performing arts.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If either I or II follows
  • (D) If neither I nor II follows

Question 124:

In the question below, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Statement: All students passed the mathematics exam. Conclusions: I. Every student is good at mathematics. II. No student failed the mathematics exam.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If either I or II follows
  • (D) If neither I nor II follows

Question 125:

In the question below, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Statement: The traffic signal is red. Conclusions: I. All vehicles must stop. II. Pedestrians can cross the road.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If either I or II follows
  • (D) If neither I nor II follows

Question 126:

Question consist of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which a ‘weak’ argument. Statement: Should the use of plastic be banned worldwide? Arguments: I. Yes. It is essential for environmental conservation and reducing pollution. II. No. It is a versatile material with various applications and banning it would disrupt industries.

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Either I or II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong.

Question 127:

The question consists of a statement and two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which a ‘weak’ argument. Statement: Should public transportation be made free in urban areas? Arguments: I. Yes. It would reduce traffic congestion and pollution. II. No. It would lead to misuse and financial burden on the government.

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Either I or II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong.

Question 128:

The question consists of a statement and two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which a ‘weak’ argument. Statement: Should social media platforms have stricter regulations on content to combat misinformation? Arguments: I. Yes. It helps prevent the spread of false information and protects users. II. No. It infringes on freedom of speech and expression.

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Either I or II is strong.
  • (D) Both I and II are strong.

Question 129:

In the question, a statement is given, followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. Statement: The company has decided to launch a new product with advanced features. Assumptions: I. Consumers are always interested in products with advanced features. II. The company has conducted market research to identify consumer preferences.

  • (A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
  • (B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
  • (C) If either Assumption I or II is implicit.
  • (D) If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

Question 130:

In the question, a statement is given, followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. Statement: The city administration is implementing a new waste management system. Assumptions: I. The current waste management system is ineffective. II. The residents are willing to cooperate with the new system.

  • (A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
  • (B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
  • (C) If either Assumption I or II is implicit.
  • (D) If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

Question 131:

In the question, a statement is given, followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement: The government has increased the tax rates on luxury goods.

Assumptions:
I. The government aims to generate additional revenue through higher taxes.
II. People will reduce their consumption of luxury goods due to increased taxes.

  • (A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
  • (B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
  • (C) If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
  • (D) If both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

Question 132:

The question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You must decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Question: What is the speed of the train?

Statements:
I. The train covers a distance of 300 kilometers in 4 hours.
II. The train's average speed during the journey is 75 kilometers per hour.

  • (A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (B) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are insufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 133:

The question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You must decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Question: How many employees does Company X have?

Statements:
I. Company X has five departments, each with 50 employees.
II. Company X's average number of employees per department is 40.

  • (A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (B) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are insufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 134:

Each question below consists of a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: In a group of friends, who is the tallest?

Statements:
I. Jack is taller than Sam but shorter than Mark.
II. Mark is shorter than Sarah.

  • (A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (B) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are insufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 135:

Each question below consists of a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: What is the total number of students in the class?

Statements:
I. There are 25 boys in the class.
II. The ratio of boys to girls is 2:1.

  • (A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (B) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are insufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 136:

Each question below consists of a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: How many siblings does Tom have?

Statements:
I. Tom has two sisters.
II. Each of Tom's sisters has one brother.

  • (A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (B) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to determine the answer.
  • (C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are insufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 137:

If the cost of 5 pens is
(30, what is the price of 8 pens?

  • (A)
    )40
  • (B)
    (48
  • (C)
    )50
  • (D)
    (64

Question 138:

What is the probability of drawing a red ball at random if a box contains 12 red balls and 8 green balls?

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{3} \)

Question 139:

If the sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 63, what is the largest number?

  • (A) 21
  • (B) 23
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 27

Question 140:

If the average of six numbers is 18, and three of the numbers are 15, 20, and 25, what is the average of the remaining three numbers?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 22

Question 141:

Who among the following world leaders has the highest number of YouTube followers?

  • (A) Rahul Gandhi
  • (B) Narendra Modi
  • (C) Shashi Tharoor
  • (D) Jair Bolsonaro

Question 142:

Which State won the Vijay Hazare Trophy in 2023?

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Haryana
  • (D) Tamil Nadu

Question 143:

Which is the safest city in India as per the 2023 report of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)?

  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Chennai
  • (C) Coimbatore
  • (D) Surat

Question 144:

Amazonia 1 is an Earth Observation satellite launched by ISRO for which country?

  • (A) Brazil
  • (B) India
  • (C) South Africa
  • (D) Argentina

Question 145:

Who is the new permanent member of the G20?

  • (A) European Union
  • (B) NATO
  • (C) WHO
  • (D) African Union

Question 146:

Who is known as the Father of Cloning?

  • (A) Ian Wilmut
  • (B) Keith Campbell
  • (C) Colin Tudge
  • (D) Roger Highfield

Question 147:

Who inaugurated the 4th National Chilika Birds Festival in 2024?

  • (A) Nitish Kumar
  • (B) Vishnudeo Sai
  • (C) Naveen Patnaik
  • (D) Arvind Kejriwal

Question 148:

What is the interest rate declared by EPFO for the Financial Year 2023-2024?

  • (A) 8%
  • (B) 8.5%
  • (C) 7.5%
  • (D) 8.25%

Question 149:

Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?

  • (A) India
  • (B) Pakistan
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Singapore

Question 150:

Lakshmisha Tolpadi has been chosen for which of the following prestigious awards in the year 2023?

  • (A) Kendra Sahitya Akademi Award
  • (B) Sahitya Akademi Translation Prize
  • (C) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
  • (D) Vyas Samman

Question 151:

Allan Border Trophy is related to which of the following sports?

  • (A) Tennis
  • (B) Cricket
  • (C) Football
  • (D) Hockey

Question 152:

The Indian Railways introduced a Bharat Gaurav Deluxe Tourist Train to showcase the heritage of which state?

  • (A) Assam
  • (B) Goa
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Punjab

Question 153:

Which Article of the Indian Constitution disqualifies MPs from Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) Article 101
  • (B) Article 102
  • (C) Article 103
  • (D) Article 104

Question 154:

Which institution has been granted a patent for creating and manufacturing a “reusable straw”?

  • (A) BSI
  • (B) ASI
  • (C) Start-up mission
  • (D) CCI

Question 155:

Which state/UT received a Geographical Indication tag for ‘Sea Buckthorn’?

  • (A) Kerala
  • (B) Goa
  • (C) Ladakh
  • (D) Tamil Nadu

Question 156:

Which country’s Prime Minister was granted the ‘Grand Cross of the Order of Honour’ by Greece in 2023?

  • (A) China
  • (B) Bangladesh
  • (C) Brazil
  • (D) None of the above

Question 157:

Which institution implements and administers the Advance Authorization Scheme?

  • (A) SEBI
  • (B) RBI
  • (C) NABARD
  • (D) DGFT

Question 158:

Which is the only state in India that produces diamonds?

  • (A) West Bengal
  • (B) Punjab
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh
  • (D) Bihar

Question 159:

Which among the following agricultural products is India’s main import item?

  • (A) Pulses
  • (B) Oil seeds
  • (C) Edible Oils
  • (D) Sugar

Question 160:

What is an infrastructure project developed on an empty site?

  • (A) Yellow Field Project
  • (B) Whitefield Project
  • (C) Greenfield Project
  • (D) Redfield Project

Question 161:

What is India’s rank in coal production worldwide?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 2

Question 162:

Which of the following is another name for the Hard Disk Drive?

  • (A) Winchester Drive
  • (B) Thin Film Drive
  • (C) SSD
  • (D) AMD

Question 163:

The most advanced form of Read-Only Memory (ROM) is:

  • (A) Cache Memory
  • (B) PROM
  • (C) PROME
  • (D) EEPROM

Question 164:

Christ the Redeemer’s statue is a landmark monument in which country?

  • (A) USA
  • (B) Canada
  • (C) Brazil
  • (D) Italy

Question 165:

Avangkhu is India’s first village on the border of which country?

  • (A) Pakistan
  • (B) China
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Myanmar

Question 166:

Which institution introduced the ‘Global Greenhouse Gas Monitoring Infrastructure’?

  • (A) WHO
  • (B) WMO
  • (C) IMF
  • (D) WEF

Question 167:

Kishtwar High Altitude National Park is in which state/UT?

  • (A) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (B) Sikkim
  • (C) Meghalaya
  • (D) Assam

Question 168:

Calcium is required in plants for the formation of which of the following?

  • (A) Cell Membrane
  • (B) Cell wall
  • (C) Chlorophyll
  • (D) None of the above

Question 169:

Which of the following functions is performed by the kidneys in the human body?

  • (A) Digestion
  • (B) Reproduction
  • (C) Excretion
  • (D) None of the above

Question 170:

Which of the following factors affect the Surface Tension?

  • (A) Nature of liquid
  • (B) Area of Surface
  • (C) Both A and B
  • (D) None of the above

Question 171:

The presence of which among the following minerals in Banana makes them slightly radioactive?

  • (A) Sodium
  • (B) Magnesium
  • (C) Potassium
  • (D) Protium

Question 172:

Who among the following said about Raja Rammohan Roy that he is “the human link between the unfading past and the dawning future”?

  • (A) Nandal Chatterjee
  • (B) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (C) Abdus Samad Khan
  • (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 173:

Which country has been recently hit by tropical storm Idalia?

  • (A) India
  • (B) Netherlands
  • (C) Argentina
  • (D) Cuba

Question 174:

United Nations Biodiversity has urged people to use which word instead of ‘flora and fauna’?

  • (A) Wild
  • (B) Fungi
  • (C) Alga
  • (D) Species

Question 175:

Which Indian city is set to launch an innovative disease surveillance dashboard?

  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) Indore
  • (C) Bhubaneswar
  • (D) Bengaluru

Question 176:

Who is the author of the book "How to Avoid a Climate Disaster"?

  • (A) Mark Zuckerberg
  • (B) Bill Gates
  • (C) Azim Premji
  • (D) Steve Jobs

Question 177:

Iodine is obtained from which of the following?

  • (A) Brown algae
  • (B) Blue algae
  • (C) Yellow algae
  • (D) White algae

Question 178:

Where is the National Institute of Hydrology (NIH) located?

  • (A) Jaipur
  • (B) New Delhi
  • (C) Roorkee
  • (D) Manali

Question 179:

Where was the 12th India-Oman ‘Joint Military Cooperation Committee meeting held?

  • (A) Dubai
  • (B) Muscat
  • (C) Mumbai
  • (D) Sharjah

Question 180:

'One Stop Centre scheme', recently seen in the news, is formulated by which ministry?

  • (A) Ministry of Finance
  • (B) Ministry of Higher Education
  • (C) Ministry of Sports
  • (D) Ministry of Women and Child Development