TISSNET 2024 Disaster Studies​ Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

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Ratnam Agarwal

Content Writer| Mechanical Engineer| Engineering Specialist | Updated 3+ months ago

TISSNET, was an entrance exam conducted by Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) at the all-India level for admission to its various postgraduate programs. However, from the 2023-24 academic session, TISS has adopted the CUET-PG for Postgraduate programs and CAT scores for a few courses, where the TISSNET exam is no more applicable.

TISSNET ( COQP09 - Disaster Studies​ ) Question Paper With Solution PDF is  available here.

TISSNET Disaster Studies​ Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

TISSNET Disaster Studies​ Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

TISSNET Disaster Studies​ Question Paper With Solution

Question 1:

As per the constitution of India, which of the following articles directs the State to improve public health, nutrition and the standard of living?

  • (1) Article 41
  • (2) Article 46
  • (3) Article 47
  • (4) Article 50
Correct Answer: (3) Article 47
View Solution



Article 47 of the Constitution of India directs the State to improve public health, nutrition, and the standard of living. It places a responsibility on the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Article 47 (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Article 47 is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy that guides the State in enhancing the health and welfare of its citizens.


Question 2:

Who acts as the chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?

  • (1) Prime Minister of India
  • (2) Home Minister of India
  • (3) Defence Minister of India
  • (4) Health Minister of India
Correct Answer: (1) Prime Minister of India
View Solution



The Prime Minister of India acts as the chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). NDMA is the apex body responsible for formulating policies and plans for disaster management in India.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Prime Minister of India (Option 1).
Quick Tip: NDMA plays a crucial role in disaster management and response, and its leadership is provided by the Prime Minister.


Question 3:

As per the constitution of India, which of the following entries in the Union List deals with inter-state quarantine?

  • (1) Entry 51
  • (2) Entry 61
  • (3) Entry 71
  • (4) Entry 81
Correct Answer: (2) Entry 61
View Solution



Entry 61 in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with matters related to inter-state quarantine. This entry empowers the Union Government to legislate on quarantine and isolation practices for public health.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Entry 61 (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The Union List defines the areas in which the central government can legislate, including issues of public health and quarantine.


Question 4:

Which of the following is the nodal ministry for the management of Avalanche?

  • (1) Ministry of Mines
  • (2) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • (3) Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • (4) Ministry of Defence
Correct Answer: (3) Ministry of Earth Sciences
View Solution



The Ministry of Earth Sciences is the nodal ministry responsible for managing the issues related to avalanches. This ministry conducts research, provides information, and develops systems for early warning of natural disasters, including avalanches.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Ministry of Earth Sciences (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The Ministry of Earth Sciences handles research and forecasting related to natural hazards like avalanches, earthquakes, and climate change.


Question 5:

Which of the following sections of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 is related to the constitution of the National Disaster Response Force?

  • (1) Section 44
  • (2) Section 46
  • (3) Section 48
  • (4) Section 50
Correct Answer: (1) Section 44
View Solution



Section 44 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 deals with the constitution of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF). This section empowers the Government of India to establish a specialized response force for handling natural and man-made disasters.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Section 44 (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a specialized force created to manage disasters and provide immediate response to such situations.


Question 6:

Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) is related to ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being?

  • (1) SDG Goal 2
  • (2) SDG Goal 3
  • (3) SDG Goal 4
  • (4) SDG Goal 9
Correct Answer: (2) SDG Goal 3
View Solution



SDG Goal 3 aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages. It covers a range of health-related issues, such as reducing maternal and child mortality, addressing infectious diseases, and ensuring access to healthcare services.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is SDG Goal 3 (Option 2).
Quick Tip: SDG Goal 3 is a vital part of the UN's 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, with a focus on public health, access to medicine, and reducing health disparities.


Question 7:

What is the tenure of the judge of the International Criminal Court?

  • (1) 3 years
  • (2) 5 years
  • (3) 6 years
  • (4) 9 years
Correct Answer: (3) 9 years
View Solution



The tenure of a judge of the International Criminal Court (ICC) is 9 years. The judges of the ICC are elected for a fixed term of nine years, and they cannot be re-elected for consecutive terms.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 9 years (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The International Criminal Court plays a vital role in addressing crimes such as genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.


Question 8:

Match List I with List II:
Q8

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (I), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution



The correct matching of Reservoirs and Rivers is:

- Gandhi Sagar Reservoir is on the Betwa river.

- Panchet Reservoir is on the Chambal river.

- Matatila Reservoir is on the Damodar river.

- Nizam Sagar Reservoir is on the Manjira river.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 1: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).
Quick Tip: India has numerous reservoirs that are critical for irrigation, power generation, and flood control.


Question 9:

Those who leave the sovereign territory of one country in order to achieve refugee status in another country based upon claims of danger are called:

  • (1) Asylum Seeker
  • (2) Diaspora
  • (3) Emigrant
  • (4) Immigrant
Correct Answer: (1) Asylum Seeker
View Solution



An Asylum Seeker is someone who leaves their home country due to fear of danger and applies for refugee status in another country. They are seeking international protection.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Asylum Seeker (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Asylum seekers are different from refugees, as they are still in the process of seeking recognition as refugees under international law.


Question 10:

Which of the following is an artificial intelligence language?

  • (1) BASIC
  • (2) COBOL
  • (3) FORTRAN
  • (4) LISP
Correct Answer: (4) LISP
View Solution



LISP is a programming language that is widely used in artificial intelligence (AI) and symbolic processing. It is particularly known for its use in AI research due to its adaptability and flexibility in handling complex data structures.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is LISP (Option 4).
Quick Tip: LISP is one of the oldest programming languages still used in AI and symbolic computation.


Question 11:

Arrange the following in decreasing order:
(A) Exabyte
(B) Gigabyte
(C) Petabyte
(D) Terabyte
(E) Yottabyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (C), (D), (B), (E), (A)
  • (2) (E), (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (3) (E), (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (4) (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: \text{(4) (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)}
View Solution



The correct decreasing order for data sizes is: \[ Yottabyte > Exabyte > Petabyte > Terabyte > Gigabyte \] Quick Tip: In data storage, the sizes increase in the following order: Gigabyte < Terabyte < Petabyte < Exabyte < Yottabyte.


Question 12:

Which of the following Logic Gates are incorrectly listed?

  • (A) AND
  • (B) FOR
  • (C) NAND
  • (D) SUB
  • (E) XOR
Correct Answer: (B) and (D) only
View Solution



The following gates are incorrectly listed:
- FOR is not a logic gate.
- SUB is also not a standard logic gate.
- AND, NAND, and XOR are valid logic gates.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (B) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: Standard logic gates include AND, OR, NOT, NAND, NOR, XOR, and XNOR.


Question 13:

Which of the following is a correct example of Platform as a Service (PaaS) in Cloud Computing?

  • (1) Apache
  • (2) Amazon
  • (3) Microsoft
  • (4) Google
Correct Answer: (3) Microsoft
View Solution



Microsoft is a correct example of PaaS (Platform as a Service), as it provides cloud platforms like Azure, which offer a platform for developers to build and deploy applications without managing the underlying hardware or software infrastructure.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Microsoft (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure.


Question 14:

Which of the following is the correct expansion for HPCC?

  • (1) Highest Performance Computer for Computing
  • (2) High Performance Computing and Communications
  • (3) High Performance Computer and Communications
  • (4) Higher Performing Computer and Communications
Correct Answer: (2) High Performance Computing and Communications
View Solution



HPCC stands for High Performance Computing and Communications, which refers to the use of supercomputers and high-speed communication systems for advanced computing tasks and research.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is High Performance Computing and Communications (Option 2).
Quick Tip: HPCC plays a crucial role in fields like climate research, simulations, data analysis, and scientific computing.


Question 15:

Which of the following is primarily an interpreted logic programming language, designed for use in Artificial Intelligence (AI) applications?

  • (1) PASCAL
  • (2) PERL
  • (3) PROLOG
  • (4) PostScript
Correct Answer: (3) PROLOG
View Solution



PROLOG is a logic programming language that is primarily interpreted. It is used extensively in Artificial Intelligence (AI) for tasks like natural language processing and machine learning.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is PROLOG (Option 3).
Quick Tip: PROLOG is a declarative programming language, and it is particularly suited for solving problems that involve complex logical relationships.


Question 16:

Which of the following is responsible for executing the query in a database?

  • (1) Code Generator
  • (2) Query Optimizer
  • (3) Query Parser
  • (4) Query Processor
Correct Answer: (4) Query Processor
View Solution



The Query Processor is responsible for executing queries in a database. It interprets the query, optimizes it, and ultimately runs it to produce the desired results.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Query Processor (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The Query Processor is an essential component of the database management system (DBMS) that ensures efficient query execution.


Question 17:

In relation to outbreaks, 'the gap in time between the onset of primary case and secondary case' is known as

  • (1) Incubation period
  • (2) Lead time
  • (3) Generation time
  • (4) Serial interval
Correct Answer: (3) Generation time
View Solution



The Generation Time is the time gap between the onset of the primary case (first case) and the onset of the secondary case (subsequent case). It is crucial in studying the spread of infectious diseases.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Generation Time (Option 3).
Quick Tip: Generation time helps in understanding the dynamics of infectious disease spread and is critical in determining control measures.


Question 18:

Nutritional supplementation programmes are a form of which type of prevention?

  • (1) Primordial
  • (2) Primary
  • (3) Secondary
  • (4) Tertiary
Correct Answer: (2) Primary
View Solution



Primary Prevention involves efforts to prevent the onset of disease or health issues. Nutritional supplementation programs fall under primary prevention as they aim to improve health and prevent malnutrition before any health problems arise.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Primary (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Primary prevention focuses on health promotion and disease prevention before any clinical signs or symptoms appear.


Question 19:

Which of the following dimensions is mentioned in the definition of Health, according to the World Health Organization (1948)?

  • (1) Financial
  • (2) Environmental
  • (3) Social
  • (4) Occupational
Correct Answer: (3) Social
View Solution



The World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948 defined health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being. The social dimension is an integral part of the definition.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Social (Option 3).
Quick Tip: WHO's definition of health emphasizes that health is not merely the absence of disease but a holistic state of well-being in physical, mental, and social aspects.


Question 20:

Which of the following water-borne diseases are caused by protozoan?
(A) Weil's disease
(B) Giardiasis
(C) Amoebiasis
(D) Cholera
(E) Hepatitis E

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (B) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (B) and (C) only
View Solution



Giardiasis and Amoebiasis are both caused by protozoa. The other diseases listed, such as Weil's disease, Cholera, and Hepatitis E, are not caused by protozoa but by bacteria and viruses.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (B) and (C) only (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Protozoan diseases like Giardiasis and Amoebiasis are water-borne and can lead to gastrointestinal issues. Proper sanitation and hygiene are essential to control them.


Question 21:

An outbreak of disease in an animal population is known as

  • (1) Epornithic
  • (2) Exotic
  • (3) Epizootic
  • (4) Enzootic
Correct Answer: (3) Epizootic
View Solution



An Epizootic is an outbreak of disease that occurs in a specific population of animals, similar to an epidemic in humans. It is commonly used to describe diseases affecting animal populations over a large area.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Epizootic (Option 3).
Quick Tip: An epizootic is a term commonly used in veterinary medicine to describe widespread disease outbreaks in animals.


Question 22:

World Health Organization declared the end of Public Health Emergency of International Concern for COVID-19 on

  • (1) 05 June, 2022
  • (2) 05 May, 2022
  • (3) 05 April, 2023
  • (4) 05 May, 2023
Correct Answer: (3) 05 April, 2023
View Solution



On 05 April, 2023, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially declared the end of the Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for COVID-19.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 05 April, 2023 (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The WHO's declaration of the end of COVID-19 as a public health emergency marks a significant milestone in the global response to the pandemic.


Question 23:

Which of the following occupational diseases is often associated with Hay or Grain Dust?

  • (1) Anthracosis
  • (2) Hayosis
  • (3) Grainestosis
  • (4) Farmer's lung
Correct Answer: (4) Farmer's lung
View Solution



Farmer's lung is an occupational disease caused by inhaling dust from hay, grain, or other organic matter, leading to respiratory issues.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Farmer's lung (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Farmer's lung is a form of hypersensitivity pneumonitis, a condition caused by inhaling organic dust, particularly in agricultural settings.


Question 24:

In disaster triage system, which of the following colour is used for tagging the patients with 'urgent conditions, but who can be transported after sometime'?

  • (1) Green
  • (2) White
  • (3) Yellow
  • (4) Red
Correct Answer: (3) Yellow
View Solution



In disaster triage systems, Yellow is the colour used for patients who have urgent medical conditions but can wait for treatment after a short period.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Yellow (Option 3).
Quick Tip: In disaster triage, a yellow tag indicates that the patient requires medical attention but can be delayed for a short period without risk of death.


Question 25:

Which of the following is a triage system used in Mass Casualty Incidents and Disasters?

  • (1) MOVE triage system
  • (2) MASS triage system
  • (3) RESCUE triage system
  • (4) APA triage system
Correct Answer: (2) MASS triage system
View Solution



The MASS triage system is a method used in mass casualty incidents to prioritize patients based on the severity of their injuries.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is MASS triage system (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The MASS triage system is a simple and quick system used during mass casualty incidents to prioritize treatment.


Question 26:

In which year did the Three Mile Island accident take place?

  • (1) 1978
  • (2) 1979
  • (3) 1980
  • (4) 1981
Correct Answer: (2) 1979
View Solution



The Three Mile Island accident occurred on March 28, 1979, in Pennsylvania, USA. It was the most serious accident in the history of the American commercial nuclear power generating industry.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 1979 (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The Three Mile Island incident was a partial nuclear meltdown that led to widespread fears about nuclear energy.


Question 27:

For high-quality Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation, chest compression should be at the rate of

  • (1) 70 to 90 chest compressions / minute
  • (2) 80 to 100 chest compressions / minute
  • (3) 90 to 110 chest compressions / minute
  • (4) 100 to 120 chest compressions / minute
Correct Answer: (4) 100 to 120 chest compressions / minute
View Solution



For high-quality Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR), the chest compression rate should be between 100 and 120 compressions per minute to ensure effective blood circulation during resuscitation.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 100 to 120 chest compressions per minute (Option 4).
Quick Tip: For optimal CPR, chest compressions should be continuous and at the proper depth, at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute.


Question 28:

Epidemiological triad refers to

  • (1) Agent, Disease, Environment
  • (2) Host, Agent, Disease
  • (3) Host, Disease, Environment
  • (4) Host, Agent, Environment
Correct Answer: (4) Host, Agent, Environment
View Solution



The Epidemiological Triad consists of three components: Host, Agent, and Environment. These three factors interact to determine the occurrence and spread of diseases in populations.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Host, Agent, Environment (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The Epidemiological Triad is fundamental in understanding the dynamics of infectious diseases and forms the basis of disease prevention strategies.


Question 29:

Constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease of infectious agent in a population within a geographic area is known as

  • (1) Sporadic
  • (2) Endemic
  • (3) Epidemic
  • (4) Pandemic
Correct Answer: (2) Endemic
View Solution



An endemic disease is one that is constantly present or prevalent in a specific geographic area or population, but not spreading uncontrollably.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Endemic (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Endemic diseases are always present in a population but usually at a predictable and controlled level.


Question 30:

Which of the following was India’s initiative for assistance to earthquake-hit Turkiye and Syria?

  • (1) Operation Dost
  • (2) Operation Kesari
  • (3) Operation Rainbow
  • (4) Operation Castor
Correct Answer: (1) Operation Dost
View Solution



Operation Dost was India's humanitarian assistance initiative to help Turkey and Syria after the devastating earthquake in 202(3) India sent search and rescue teams, medical aid, and other relief supplies.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Operation Dost (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Operation Dost is an example of India's international aid efforts in times of global disasters, showcasing solidarity with other nations.


Question 31:

The legal doctrine of ‘Parens Patriae’ refers to:

  • (1) Right to fair trial
  • (2) Duty of citizens to serve the nation
  • (3) Presumption of innocence until proven guilty
  • (4) Obligation on the state to protect persons under disability
Correct Answer: (4) Obligation on the state to protect persons under disability
View Solution



The doctrine of Parens Patriae refers to the state's obligation to protect those who are unable to protect themselves, such as minors or persons with disabilities. This principle gives the state the authority to intervene and act as a guardian in the best interest of vulnerable individuals.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Obligation on the state to protect persons under disability (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The concept of Parens Patriae is deeply rooted in law and highlights the state's duty to care for vulnerable individuals.


Question 32:

Which of the following prepares the National Plan for Disaster Management in India?

  • (1) National Institute of Disaster Management
  • (2) National Disaster Response Force
  • (3) National Executive Committee
  • (4) Special Centre for Disaster Research, JNU
Correct Answer: (3) National Executive Committee
View Solution



The National Executive Committee (NEC) is responsible for preparing the National Plan for Disaster Management, which outlines the country's strategies for disaster preparedness, mitigation, and response.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is National Executive Committee (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The NEC works under the Ministry of Home Affairs and plays a crucial role in disaster planning and coordination in India.


Question 33:

Which of the following mentioned Acts is enumerated in the 'Schedule I' of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?

  • (1) Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
  • (2) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
  • (3) Energy Conservation Act, 2001
  • (4) Solid Waste Management Act, 2006
Correct Answer: (1) Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
View Solution



The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 is one of the key legislations listed in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. This Act addresses the protection of wildlife and their habitats in India.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The National Green Tribunal deals with environmental and ecological issues, and its jurisdiction includes the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 197(2)


Question 34:

How many priorities for action are outlined under the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction?

  • (1) Three
  • (2) Four
  • (3) Five
  • (4) Seven
Correct Answer: (3) Five
View Solution



The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction outlines five priorities for action, which focus on understanding disaster risks, strengthening disaster risk governance, and improving disaster preparedness and response.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Five (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The Sendai Framework emphasizes the need for comprehensive strategies and multi-stakeholder collaboration to reduce disaster risks.


Question 35:

Irrelevant spatial data entered during digitizing, scanning or data transfer in GIS is termed as

  • (1) Garbage
  • (2) Mis-allocated data
  • (3) Noise
  • (4) Null Data
Correct Answer: (3) Noise
View Solution



In Geographic Information Systems (GIS), noise refers to irrelevant or extraneous spatial data that does not contribute meaningfully to the analysis and may distort results.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Noise (Option 3).
Quick Tip: In GIS, noise can be caused by errors during data collection, digitization, or transfer. It is important to clean the data for accurate analysis.


Question 36:

In 1964, Laboratory for Computer Graphics and Spatial Analysis (LCGSA) was developed in -

  • (1) Harvard University
  • (2) Moscow University
  • (3) Chicago University
  • (4) John Hopkins University
Correct Answer: (1) Harvard University
View Solution



The Laboratory for Computer Graphics and Spatial Analysis (LCGSA) was established at Harvard University in 196(4) It played a pivotal role in the development of computer graphics and spatial analysis techniques.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Harvard University (Option 1).
Quick Tip: The LCGSA at Harvard University was instrumental in advancing geographic and spatial computing technologies.


Question 37:

SDSS stands for -

  • (1) Special Decision Support System
  • (2) Spectral Data Support System
  • (3) Spatial Decision Support System
  • (4) Special Database Support System
Correct Answer: (3) Spatial Decision Support System
View Solution



SDSS stands for Spatial Decision Support System. It refers to a system that provides support for spatial decision-making by incorporating spatial data analysis and decision modeling.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Spatial Decision Support System (Option 3).
Quick Tip: An SDSS is designed to support decision-making in situations where spatial data plays a crucial role, such as urban planning, environmental management, and disaster response.


Question 38:

Which of the following types of malware do not replicate or clone themselves through infection?

  • (1) Root Kits
  • (2) Trojans
  • (3) Viruses
  • (4) Worms
Correct Answer: (2) Trojans
View Solution



Trojans are types of malware that do not replicate themselves. Unlike viruses or worms, they are often disguised as legitimate software and do not self-replicate but instead rely on users to execute them.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Trojans (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Trojans can cause harm to systems without self-replicating. They usually rely on social engineering techniques to trick users into installing them.


Question 39:

There is a collective term for malicious spying programs used for security monitoring of someone's activities and actions over a digital medium -

  • (1) Keylogger
  • (2) Malware
  • (3) Remote Access Trojans
  • (4) Spyware
Correct Answer: (4) Spyware
View Solution



Spyware refers to malicious software that secretly monitors and records a user's activity on a computer or network, typically for gathering personal information or spying on the user.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Spyware (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Spyware can track keystrokes, browsing history, and other personal information without the user's knowledge or consent.


Question 40:

Who is the father of computer security?

  • (1) August Kerckhoffs
  • (2) Bob Thomas
  • (3) Charles Babbage
  • (4) John McCarthy
Correct Answer: (1) August Kerckhoffs
View Solution



August Kerckhoffs is considered the father of computer security. He formulated the principle that a cryptographic system should be secure even if everything about the system, except the secret key, is known. His work laid the foundation for modern cryptography and computer security.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is August Kerckhoffs (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Kerckhoffs' Principle remains a fundamental idea in cryptography, emphasizing the importance of keeping only the encryption key secret.


Question 41:

The reduction in calcification rates in reef-building corals and algae is due to

  • (1) Sea Water Chemistry
  • (2) Sea Water Temperature
  • (3) Sea Level Rise
  • (4) Storm Frequency and Intensity
Correct Answer: (1) Sea Water Chemistry
View Solution



The reduction in calcification rates in reef-building corals and algae is mainly due to changes in sea water chemistry, particularly the increased acidification of the oceans caused by higher atmospheric CO2 levels.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Sea Water Chemistry (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Ocean acidification due to increased CO2 absorption disrupts the ability of corals and algae to calcify, impacting coral reef ecosystems.


Question 42:

Which of the following is closely related to Sustainable Development?

  • (1) Prime Minister of Estonia
  • (2) Prime Minister of Finland
  • (3) Prime Minister of Norway
  • (4) Prime Minister of Sweden
Correct Answer: (4) Prime Minister of Sweden
View Solution



The Prime Minister of Sweden has been closely associated with sustainable development initiatives. Sweden has consistently been a global leader in promoting sustainable development practices through green policies and environmental protection strategies.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Prime Minister of Sweden (Option 4).
Quick Tip: Sweden has made significant strides in integrating sustainable development goals (SDGs) into their national policies and international initiatives.


Question 43:

Which of the following is not identified as the drivers of changes in ecosystem goods and services as per the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment Report (2005)?

  • (1) Cultural
  • (2) Economic
  • (3) Religious
  • (4) Socio-political
Correct Answer: (3) Religious
View Solution



The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment Report (2005) identifies cultural, economic, and socio-political factors as the primary drivers of change in ecosystem goods and services. Religious factors are not explicitly identified as a main driver in the report.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Religious (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment focuses on human impact and environmental factors influencing ecosystems and services across the globe.


Question 44:

Which of the following diversity indices represents diversity between habitats or between communities?

  • (1) Alpha (a)
  • (2) Beta (B)
  • (3) Epsilon (ε)
  • (4) Gamma (γ)
Correct Answer: (2) Beta (B)
View Solution



Beta diversity (β) refers to the diversity between different habitats or communities. It measures the difference in species composition between ecosystems or locations.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Beta (B) (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Beta diversity helps understand how diverse ecosystems are across space, highlighting the variability of species composition.


Question 45:

Which of the following is considered as a high impact species?

  • (1) Flagship species
  • (2) Keystone species
  • (3) Threatened species
  • (4) Umbrella species
Correct Answer: (2) Keystone species
View Solution



Keystone species are those that have a disproportionately large effect on the ecosystem compared to their abundance. These species are crucial for the structure, diversity, and functioning of their environment.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Keystone species (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Keystone species play a critical role in maintaining the ecological balance and health of ecosystems.


Question 46:

Match List I with List II
Q46

 

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer:(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)}
View Solution



The correct matching is based on the sources and pollutants they are related to:


Flourides come from Chemical industries, oil wells, refineries.
H2S is a by-product from Manufacture of fertilizers, ceramics, and aluminium smelting.
Mercury comes from Manufacture of papers, chemicals and paints.
NOx comes from Power stations and industrial furnaces. Quick Tip: Understanding the sources of various pollutants can help in targeting the right strategies for reducing environmental impacts.


Question 47:

A particular kind of toxin including physical, chemical or biological agents, that causes cancer is called

  • (1) Carcinogen
  • (2) Estrogen
  • (3) Mutagen
  • (4) Teratogen
Correct Answer: (1) Carcinogen
View Solution



A Carcinogen is any substance, organism, or physical agent that promotes or causes cancer in living tissue.

Estrogen, Mutagen, and Teratogen refer to hormones, substances that cause genetic mutations, and substances that cause birth defects, respectively, but they are not necessarily carcinogenic.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Carcinogen (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Carcinogens are agents that directly contribute to the development of cancer, either by causing mutations in DNA or by affecting cellular functions.


Question 48:

Which of the following waste management approaches is not an energy recovery method?

  • (1) Compositing
  • (2) Incineration
  • (3) Pyrolysis
  • (4) Fluidized Bed Combustion
Correct Answer: (1) Compositing
View Solution



Composting (Option 1) is a waste management process that decomposes organic waste into nutrient-rich soil, but it does not directly recover energy.
Incineration, Pyrolysis, and Fluidized Bed Combustion all involve thermal processes that generate energy by burning or chemically processing waste.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Composting (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Composting is an eco-friendly waste management method that turns organic waste into valuable compost, but it does not provide energy recovery.


Question 49:

Which of the following is the common scientific sponsor of the other listed international programmes?

  • (1) ICSU
  • (2) IGBP
  • (3) IHDP
  • (4) WCRP
Correct Answer: (1) ICSU
View Solution



The International Council for Science (ICSU) is the common sponsor of various international programs including IGBP, IHDP, and WCRP. These programs focus on global environmental change, sustainable development, and climate studies.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is ICSU (Option 1).
Quick Tip: ICSU sponsors collaborative global research programs that focus on scientific issues like climate change and sustainability.


Question 50:

Quantification of the adverse effects arising from exposure to a hazardous reagent or toxic, based on the degree of exposure is called

  • (1) Dose Response Assessment
  • (2) Exposure Assessment
  • (3) Hazard Identification
  • (4) Risk Characterization
Correct Answer: (1) Dose Response Assessment
View Solution



Dose Response Assessment refers to the process of evaluating the relationship between the dose of a harmful substance and the extent of its adverse effects on human health or the environment.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Dose Response Assessment (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Dose Response Assessment is crucial for understanding how exposure to a chemical or toxin leads to specific health outcomes.


Question 51:

How much cultivable area is vulnerable to drought in India?

  • (1) Nearly 36 percent
  • (2) Nearly 48 percent
  • (3) Nearly 58 percent
  • (4) Nearly 68 percent
Correct Answer: (4) Nearly 68 percent
View Solution



India has a significant portion of its cultivable land prone to drought. Nearly 68 percent of the country's cultivable area is vulnerable to drought conditions. Drought is a common issue in many parts of India, especially in the western and central regions.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Nearly 68 percent.
Quick Tip: Drought vulnerability in India affects agricultural productivity, leading to food insecurity and economic challenges.


Question 52:

Which of the following are influences of increased UV-B radiation on human health, plants, and aquatic ecosystem?

  • (A) Skin cancer and eye cataracts
    (B) Human immune system suppression
    (C) Increased crop yields and tree growth
    (D) Increased phytoplankton productivity
    (E) Possible climate change
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
  • (2) (B), (C)and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (C)and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (C) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (E) only
View Solution



Increased UV-B radiation is a harmful environmental issue, affecting human health, plants, and aquatic ecosystems.

- (A) Skin cancer and eye cataracts are well-documented health issues related to UV-B radiation exposure.

- (B) UV-B radiation can suppress the human immune system, making people more susceptible to infections and diseases.

- (E) It is linked to possible climate change due to its effect on the atmosphere and ecosystems.

However, (C) and (D) are not accurate because UV-B radiation can actually reduce crop yields and tree growth and can disrupt aquatic ecosystems, rather than increase productivity.

Conclusion:
The correct influences are (A), (B), and (E) only.
Quick Tip: UV-B radiation increases can lead to significant health risks, ecological shifts, and climate-related impacts.


Question 53:

Which of the following attributes are correct about the concept of ‘sex’?

  • (A) Sex is a biological construction
    (B) Sex connotes different social roles of men and women in society.
    (C) Sex is generally considered to be static and dictated by forces of nature
    (D) Sex is a synonym for Gender.
    (E) Sex is a socio-cultural construction
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
  • (1) (A) and (C) only
  • (2) (A) and (E) only
  • (3) (B) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (C) only
View Solution



- (A) Sex is a biological construction: This is correct as sex refers to the biological differences between males and females, such as reproductive organs and chromosomes.

- (B) Sex connotes different social roles of men and women in society: This is incorrect because this definition refers to gender, not sex.

- (C) Sex is generally considered to be static and dictated by forces of nature: This is correct. Sex is often considered a natural, fixed characteristic determined by biological factors.

- (D) Sex is a synonym for Gender: This is incorrect. Sex refers to biological differences, while gender refers to the social roles and identities associated with being male or female.

- (E) Sex is a socio-cultural construction: This is incorrect as it refers to gender, not biological sex.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A) and (C) only.
Quick Tip: Sex refers to biological differences, while gender is a socio-cultural construct based on those biological differences.


Question 54:

Which of the following are parts of the main pillars of the National Disaster Management Plan, 2019?

  • (A) Social inclusion as a ubiquitous and cross-cutting principle
    (B) Mainstreaming Environmental Impact Assessment as an integral feature
    (C) Conforming to Disaster Management Act, 2005
    (D) Conforming to Environment, Climate, and Disaster Management
    (E) Mainstreaming Prime Minister's Ten Point Agenda for DRR
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
  • (1) (A), (B)and (C) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (©), (D ) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
View Solution



- (A) Social inclusion as a ubiquitous and cross-cutting principle: This is part of the National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) as it ensures that marginalized communities are included in disaster risk management and response.

- (B) Mainstreaming Environmental Impact Assessment as an integral feature: This is not a main pillar of the NDMP. While environmental concerns are part of disaster management, EIA is not identified as a central pillar in the 2019 plan.

- (C) Conforming to Disaster Management Act, 2005: This is a main pillar of the plan. The NDMP aligns with the provisions of the Disaster Management Act of 2005 to ensure a unified approach to disaster management.

- (D) Conforming to Environment, Climate, and Disaster Management: While important, this is not explicitly identified as a central pillar in the NDMP. The plan does consider environmental and climate factors but does not label this as one of its main pillars.

- (E) Mainstreaming Prime Minister's Ten Point Agenda for DRR: This is an important pillar of the NDMP as it incorporates the Prime Minister's Ten Point Agenda to strengthen disaster risk reduction (DRR) efforts.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A), (C), and (E) only.
Quick Tip: The National Disaster Management Plan emphasizes inclusivity, conformity with existing laws, and DRR strategies to strengthen the nation’s disaster resilience.


Question 55:

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 includes the following under physical disability -

  • (A) Leprosy cured person
    (B) Cerebral Palsy
    (C) Multiple Sclerosis
    (D) Autism spectrum disorder
    (E) Acid attack victims
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (A), (B)and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (E) only
Correct Answer:(1)(A), (B) and (C) only
View Solution



The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 includes several disabilities under physical disability. Among the options given:

- Leprosy cured person (A) is considered a physical disability under the Act.

- Cerebral Palsy (B) and Multiple Sclerosis (C) are also listed under physical disability.

- Autism spectrum disorder (D) is categorized as a developmental disorder and not a physical disability.

- Acid attack victims (E) are also included in the Act but under a separate category related to specific types of disability, not as physical disability.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is (A), (B), and (C) only.
Quick Tip: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act provides broad coverage of disabilities, including physical, mental, and developmental, ensuring the rights and welfare of affected individuals.


Question 56:

Which of the following mobile applications implemented by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) publishes official warnings for all disasters from authorized sources?

  • (1) D-Map
  • (2) DAMINI
  • (3) RAKSHAK
  • (4) SACHET
Correct Answer: (2) DAMINI
View Solution



DAMINI is the mobile application launched by the NDMA that provides real-time earthquake information and official warnings from authorized sources. It is an important tool for disaster management, providing users with timely information on seismic activity.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is DAMINI (Option 2).
Quick Tip: DAMINI helps in disseminating earthquake-related information to the public quickly, ensuring better preparedness and response.


Question 57:

The International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction was started in which year?

  • (1) 1985
  • (2) 1989
  • (3) 1990
  • (4) 1994
Correct Answer: (3) 1990
View Solution



The International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction was first celebrated in 1990. It aims to promote a global culture of disaster risk reduction and raise awareness about the importance of disaster preparedness and response.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 1990 (Option 3).
Quick Tip: The International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction highlights the need for building resilience against disasters worldwide.


Question 58:

National Disaster Management Guidelines on Disability Inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction were released by

  • (1) Special Centre for Disaster Research, JNU
  • (2) National Institute of Disaster Management
  • (3) Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
  • (4) National Disaster Management Authority
Correct Answer: (4) National Disaster Management Authority
View Solution



The National Disaster Management Guidelines on Disability Inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction were released by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). These guidelines aim to ensure the inclusion of persons with disabilities in disaster risk reduction efforts.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is National Disaster Management Authority (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The NDMA has been instrumental in developing guidelines that focus on the inclusion of marginalized groups, including persons with disabilities, in disaster preparedness and response.


Question 59:

Community Based Disaster Management (CBDM) is an example of

  • (1) Reactive approach for disaster mitigation
  • (2) Top-down approach for disaster mitigation
  • (3) Bottom-up approach for disaster mitigation
  • (4) Science-driven approach for disaster mitigation
Correct Answer: (3) Bottom-up approach for disaster mitigation
View Solution



Community Based Disaster Management (CBDM) is a bottom-up approach that emphasizes local involvement and community participation in disaster preparedness, response, and recovery. This approach focuses on strengthening local resilience and ensuring that communities are well-equipped to handle disasters.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Bottom-up approach for disaster mitigation (Option 3).
Quick Tip: CBDM empowers local communities, helping them take ownership of their disaster management efforts and reducing their vulnerability to disasters.


Question 60:

Which of the following institutions had developed National Action Plan for Children, 2016?

  • (1) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • (2) Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • (3) Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • (4) Ministry of Home Affairs
Correct Answer: (2) Ministry of Women and Child Development
View Solution



The National Action Plan for Children, 2016 was developed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

This plan focuses on improving the well-being of children in India, with specific strategies and actions to address issues like health, education, protection, and development.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Ministry of Women and Child Development (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The National Action Plan for Children aims to implement comprehensive measures for the holistic development and protection of children in India.


Question 61:

Which of the following is not a key priority area as per the National Policy for Children, 2013?

  • (1) Survival, Health and Nutrition
  • (2) Protection
  • (3) Participation
  • (4) Preservation
Correct Answer: (4) Preservation
View Solution



The National Policy for Children, 2013 focuses on the survival, development, protection, and participation of children. The key priorities include survival, health, nutrition, protection, and participation. Preservation is not explicitly listed as a priority area in the policy.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Preservation (Option 4).
Quick Tip: The National Policy for Children aims to ensure the rights and well-being of children by focusing on their survival, development, and participation in society.


Question 62:

Human Development Index (HDI) value ranges between

  • (1) -1 and +1
  • (2) 0 and 1
  • (3) 0 and 5
  • (4) 1 and 5
Correct Answer: (2) 0 and 1
View Solution



The Human Development Index (HDI) is a measure of human development that ranges between 0 and (1) A value closer to 1 indicates higher human development, while a value closer to 0 indicates lower development.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 0 and 1 (Option 2).
Quick Tip: The HDI measures a country's achievements in health, education, and income, with a scale from 0 (lowest) to 1 (highest).


Question 63:

Who coined and popularized the term Heteronormativity?

  • (1) Michael Warner
  • (2) Michel Foucault
  • (3) David Kooper
  • (4) Will Moot
Correct Answer: (1) Michael Warner
View Solution



The term Heteronormativity was coined and popularized by Michael Warner. It refers to the belief that heterosexuality is the default or norm, and it marginalizes non-heterosexual identities and behaviors.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Michael Warner (Option 1).
Quick Tip: Heteronormativity challenges the assumption that heterosexuality is the only valid sexual orientation and highlights the social bias towards heterosexual norms.


Question 64:

One 'DALY' as used in the context of human health represents the loss of

  • (1) Equivalent to one year of full health
  • (2) Equivalent to one year of disease-free life
  • (3) Equivalent to one human life
  • (4) Equivalent to one decade of bed-ridden life
Correct Answer: (1) Equivalent to one year of full health
View Solution



DALY (Disability-Adjusted Life Year) is a measure used to assess the overall disease burden. It represents the loss of one year of full health due to disease, injury, or premature death. It combines years of life lost due to premature death and years lived with disability.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Equivalent to one year of full health (Option 1).
Quick Tip: DALY is used to quantify the burden of disease and compare health outcomes across populations.


Question 65:

As per Indian Public Health Standards, Rural Primary Health Centre in the hilly and tribal areas should be established for a population of

  • (1) 10,000
  • (2) 20,000
  • (3) 30,000
  • (4) 50,000
Correct Answer: (2) 20,000
View Solution



As per the Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS), a Rural Primary Health Centre in hilly and tribal areas should be established for a population of 20,000. This is to ensure that healthcare services are available to populations living in remote and difficult areas.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 20,000 (Option 2).
Quick Tip: Rural Primary Health Centres are essential to provide primary healthcare services in underserved areas, improving access to essential medical care.


Question 66:

Meteorological and Oceanographic Satellite Data Archival Centre (MOSDAC), a data repository for the missions of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) disseminates information in near real time but does not provide information on

  • (1) City Weather
  • (2) Forest Fire
  • (3) Heat Waves
  • (4) Sea State
Correct Answer: (1) City Weather
View Solution



MOSDAC (Meteorological and Oceanographic Satellite Data Archival Centre) provides valuable satellite data related to meteorological and oceanographic phenomena, including forest fires, heat waves, and sea states.

However, it does not provide city weather data. Instead, the focus is more on large-scale atmospheric and oceanic conditions.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is City Weather (Option 1).
Quick Tip: MOSDAC focuses on satellite data related to oceanographic and meteorological conditions at a broader scale, rather than localized city weather information.


Question 67:

Match List I with List II.
Q67

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer:(4): (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)}
View Solution

The Great Lakes are located in North America. Therefore, (A) corresponds to (IV).
Malawi Lake is located in East Africa. Therefore, (B) corresponds to (II).
Tanganyika Lake is located in South America. Therefore, (C) corresponds to (III).
Titicaca Lake is located in Central Africa. Therefore, (D) corresponds to (I). Quick Tip: Understanding the locations of major lakes helps in recognizing their significance in regional geography, economics, and ecology.


Question 68:

While studying the property of materials, the shear modulus measures

  • (1) The resistance to flow of a liquid
  • (2) The resistance to change in shape
  • (3) The resistance to change in volume of a liquid
  • (4) The resistance to change in volume of a solid
Correct Answer: (2) The resistance to change in shape
View Solution



Shear modulus, also known as the modulus of rigidity, is the property of a material that measures its resistance to shear deformation, or in other words, its resistance to change in shape. It is defined as the ratio of shear stress to shear strain.

Conclusion:
The shear modulus measures the resistance to change in shape of a material.
Quick Tip: Shear modulus is important for understanding how materials deform under shear forces without changing volume.


Question 69:

The process by which masses of rock and soil move downhill under the influence of gravity is called

  • (1) Hydraulic action
  • (2) Landsliding
  • (3) Mass Wasting
  • (4) Solifluction
Correct Answer: (3) Mass Wasting
View Solution



Mass wasting refers to the downward movement of rock, soil, and debris under the influence of gravity. It includes processes such as landslides, rockfalls, and soil creep.

Conclusion:
The correct term for the movement of rock and soil downhill under gravity is mass wasting.
Quick Tip: Mass wasting is a key geological process that shapes landforms and contributes to erosion and deposition.


Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II

Q70

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) . (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) . (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (3) . (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (4) . (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer:(3). (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)}
View Solution



The correct matching is based on geographical locations:


Mt. Blane is located in the Arakan Yoma range.
Mt. Elbert is located in the Rocky Mountains.
Mt. Kennedy is located in the Alps Mountains.
Mt. McKinley (now Denali) is located in the Alaska Range. Quick Tip: For mountain ranges and peaks, knowing the geography and location of peaks can help in identifying the mountain ranges they belong to.


Question 71:

The movement of sand grains along the beach refers to:

  • (1) Wave refraction
  • (2) Turbidity current
  • (3) Longshore drift
  • (4) Ebb tide
Correct Answer:(3): Longshore drift
View Solution



Longshore drift refers to the movement of sand along the shore, driven by the action of waves hitting the beach at an angle. This movement is responsible for the redistribution of sand along the coastline. Quick Tip: Understanding the dynamics of wave action can help explain the phenomenon of longshore drift and the redistribution of beach sediments.


Question 72:

What drives the Earth's internal heat engine?

  • (1) Radioactivity
  • (2) Solar energy
  • (3) Volcanoes
  • (4) Ocean Tides
Correct Answer:(1): Radioactivity
View Solution



The Earth's internal heat engine is primarily driven by the heat generated from radioactive decay in the Earth's mantle and crust. This process is responsible for driving volcanic activity, plate tectonics, and other geological processes. Quick Tip: The primary source of heat in the Earth's interior comes from radioactive decay, which powers geological processes like convection currents in the mantle.


Question 73:

If sand input is greater than sand output in a beach's sand budget, the beach will:

  • (1) Be long, wide, and sandy
  • (2) Have large sand dunes
  • (3) Have a large tidal flat
  • (4) Have high cliffs
Correct Answer:(1): Be long, wide, and sandy}
View Solution



When the input of sand to a beach exceeds the output (i.e., the beach receives more sand than it loses), it results in a beach that is long, wide, and sandy due to the accumulation of sediments over time. Quick Tip: The sand budget concept helps explain coastal changes by analyzing how sand is deposited and eroded, influencing the size and shape of the beach.


Question 74:

Shearing stresses and shallow earthquakes are associated with:

  • (1) Subduction zones
  • (2) Continent convergence
  • (3) Spreading centers
  • (4) Transform boundaries
Correct Answer:(4) Transform boundaries
View Solution



Transform boundaries, where tectonic plates slide past each other, are characterized by shearing stresses. These stresses often result in shallow earthquakes along faults where the plates interact. Quick Tip: Transform boundaries are the primary sites of shallow earthquakes caused by the lateral motion of tectonic plates.


Question 75:

Match List I with List II.
Q75

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)- (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A)- (1), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
Correct Answer:(1): (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)}
View Solution



- The Guangxi Cadmium Spill occurred in Longjiang River, China (Option IV).

- The Love Canal disaster took place in Niagara Falls, New York (Option III).

- The Mariana Dam Disaster occurred in Minas Gerais, Brazil (Option II).

- The Tokaimura Nuclear Plant disaster was located in Tokyo, Japan (Option I). Quick Tip: Familiarizing yourself with global disaster events can help in understanding the impact of industrial activities and their environmental consequences.

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