ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Entomology Question Paper (Available) - Download Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Entomology Exam Question Paper with solution PDF is available here.

The ICAR AIEEA PG Question Paper follows the standard pattern with 120 multiple-choice questions, covering core subjects specific to the candidate’s chosen discipline. The paper generally includes about 60% subject-specific theory questions and 40% analytical or application-based MCQs to test in-depth understanding.

ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF

ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Question Paper (Entomology) Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

In photosynthesis, OEC stands for

  • (1) Oxygen evolving complex
  • (2) Oxygen emitting complex
  • (3) Oxygen ectoplasm complex
  • (4) Outer ectoplasm complex

Question 2:

A double stranded DNA has 30% Thymine. The percentage of cytosine is

  • (1) 30%
  • (2) 70%
  • (3) 20%
  • (4) 15%

Question 3:

Match List-I with List-II
Locust                                          Scientific names
(A) Bombay locust                     (I) Cyrtacanthacris tatarica
(B) Brown locust                        (II) Chortoicetes terminifera
(C) Australian locust                 (III) Locusta pradalina
(D) Rocky mountain locust      (IV) Melanoplus spretus

  • (1) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
  • (2) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
  • (3) A-(I), B-(III), C-(II), D-(IV)
  • (4) A-(I), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(III)

Question 4:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Development of an organism from a cell in culture medium is known as Totipotency.
Statement (II): Development of a fruit from flower in a culture medium is known as Totipotency.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 5:

Small adhesive pads on the tarsomeres in cockroach are known as:

  • (1) Plantulae
  • (2) Arolium
  • (3) Trochanter
  • (4) Tibia

Question 6:

Tylenchulus semipenetrans can be managed by using trifoliate orange as a:

(A) Root-stock
(B) Biofumigant
(C) Donor parent in hybrid production
(D) Trap crop

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (A) and (C) only

Question 7:

Japan has lifted its two-decade ban in 2006 on the import of Indian mangoes on the condition they are subjected to:

  • (1) Hot water treatment
  • (2) Irradiation
  • (3) Vapour heat treatment
  • (4) Fumigation

Question 8:

Match List-I with List-II

Book/Theory proposed/Characteristic, etc.               Author/Thinker/Name of Theory, etc.
(A) Royal Commission on Agriculture                         (I) 1943
(B) Bengal Famine                                                         (II) 1928
(C) Grow more food enquiry committee                      (III) 2006
(D) MGNREGA                                                                (IV) 1952

  • (1) A-(II), B-(I), C-(III), D-(IV)
  • (2) A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
  • (3) A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III)
  • (4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I)

Question 9:

Insect glands responsible for lubrication of mouthparts are/is:

  • (1) Maxillary gland
  • (2) Pharyngeal gland
  • (3) Salivary gland
  • (4) Mandibular gland

Question 10:

Match List-I with List-II
Category                           Crop
(A) Cereals                       (I) Potato
(B) Semi-perishables      (II) Rice
(C) Oilseeds                     (III) Maize
(D) Coarse grains            (IV) Safflower

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V

Question 11:

Grooves with a purely functional origin in insects is called:

  • (1) Sulci
  • (2) Membrane
  • (3) Pit
  • (4) Crack

Question 12:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Plumose antennae are present in female mosquito.
Statement (II): Pilose antennae are present in male mosquito.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 13:

The connecting link between Orthopteroid and Hemipteroid insects is order:

  • (1) Psocoptera
  • (2) Phthiraptera
  • (3) Zoraptera
  • (4) Mecoptera

Question 14:

An outer limiting membrane and a central pool of mitochondrial components in the spermatid is known as:

  • (1) Nebenkern
  • (2) Acrosome
  • (3) Lattice
  • (4) Filament

Question 15:

Match List-I with List-II

Family                                 Character
(A) Tettigoniidae                (I) Trapezoidal forewings
(B) Membracidae               (II) Pronounced rostrum with geniculate antenna
(C) Curculionidae              (III) Pronotum prominent, elevated hood like
(D) Gelechiidae                  (IV) Ovipositor longer than body

  • (1) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(II), D-(I)
  • (2) A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
  • (3) A-(I), B-(III), C-(II), D-(IV)
  • (4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)

Question 16:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                List-II
(A) Telenomus remus                 (I) Fish
(B) Gambusia affinis                  (II) Toad
(C) Bufo rana                              (III) Bird
(D) Acridotheres tristis.            (IV) Parasitoid

 

  • (1) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
  • (2) A-(I), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(II)
  • (3) A-(III), B-(II), C-(I), D-(IV)
  • (4) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III)

Question 17:

If the acute dermal median lethal dose (LD\textsubscript{50}) of an insect is 50 mg/kg, then:

  • (1) 50 test insects can be killed with 50 mg of toxin
  • (2) One test insect can be killed with 50 mg of the toxin
  • (3) 50% of test insect can be killed with 50 mg of the toxin
  • (4) 50% of test insect will be killed in 50 minutes by 50 mg of the toxin

Question 18:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): National Research Centre for Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is situated at Anand.

Statement (II): NRCMAP was upgraded as ICAR-Directorate of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants during the year

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 19:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                                              List-II 
(A) Imperial Bacterial Laboratory                              (I) Pusa, Bihar
(B) Agricultural Research Institute                           (II) Pune, Maharashtra
(C) Central Food Technological Res. Inst.               (III) Mysore, Karnataka
(D) Indian Council of Agricultural Research            (IV) New Delhi

 

  • (1) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
  • (2) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
  • (3) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(II), D-(I)
  • (4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)

Question 20:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): ICAR-National Research Centre on Mithun is in Medziphema
Statement (II): Mithun is a buffalo-like animal

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 21:

A short mechanism that usually involves a short segment of DNA with remarkable capacity to move from one location in a chromosome to another is called:

  • (1) DNA Replication
  • (2) DNA Transposon
  • (3) DNA Hybridisation
  • (4) DNA Recombination

Question 22:

The concept of "Green Revolution" in India was formulated during:

  • (1) First-Five Year Plan
  • (2) Second-Five Year Plan
  • (3) Third-Five Year Plan
  • (4) Fourth-Five Year Plan

Question 23:

Nematodes enter the stage of ‘lethargus’ during:

  • (1) Quiescence
  • (2) Killing and fixing
  • (3) Molting
  • (4) Desiccation

Question 24:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Voltinism in insects is number of generations produced in a year.
Statement (II): Morus alba is a perennial tree in northern India.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 25:

One of Mendel’s pure strains of pea plants had green peas. How many different types of progeny could such a plant produce with regard to pea colour?

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four

Question 26:

The first KVK was established by ICAR at Puducherry in the year:

  • (1) 1968
  • (2) 1974
  • (3) 1996
  • (4) 1980

Question 27:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Tukra disease in mulberry is caused by whitefly.
Statement (II): Shellac is a resin secreted by female lac insect on host plant.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 28:

Formic acid is produced by:

  • (1) White ant
  • (2) Cockroach
  • (3) Red ant
  • (4) House fly

Question 29:

FAO guidelines on establishment of pest free areas for fruit flies are dealt under:

  • (1) ISPM \#8
  • (2) ISPM \#16
  • (3) ISPM \#26
  • (4) ISPM \#30

Question 30:

Parasitoid, Aenasius phenacocci (Hymenoptera) on cotton mealybug, Phenacoccus solenopsis is:

  • (1) Primary parasitoid
  • (2) Hyperparasitoid
  • (3) Gregarious parasitoid
  • (4) Adelpho parasitoid

Question 31:

The phenomenon of offspring nematodes developing from unfertilized eggs happens in:

  • (1) Amphimixis
  • (2) Parthenogenesis
  • (3) Hermaphrodites
  • (4) Endotokía matricida

Question 32:

Match List I with List II

List I                                                 List II
(A) Pyriproxyfen                            (I) Sodium Channel Blocker
(B) Chlorantraniliprole                 (II) Acetyl cholinesterase inhibitor
(C) Indoxacarb                              (III) JH mimic
(D) Propoxur                                 (IV) Calcium channel activator

 

  • (1) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)
  • (2) A-(I), B-(III), C-(II), D-(IV)
  • (3) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
  • (4) A-(III), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(I)

Question 33:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Butterflies with erratic darting flights belong to family Hesperiidae.
Statement (II): Larvae with tapering at both ends without dorsal setae.

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
  • (3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
  • (4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Question 34:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Bean yellow mosaic virus is transmitted by Aphis glycines.
Statement (II): Chilli mosaic virus is transmitted by Aphis craccivora.

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 35:

Uzi fly is a serious pest of:

  • (1) Mulberry inflorescence
  • (2) Silk worm
  • (3) Horse
  • (4) Buffalo

Question 36:

Needle nematodes are important vectors of:

(A) Raspberry ringspot virus
(B) Tomato black ring virus
(C) Arabis mosaic
(D) Broomgrass mosaic

Choose the correct answer:

  • (1) (A) and (D) only
  • (2) (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A) and (C) only
  • (4) (A) and (B) only

Question 37:

Which of the following is the Orthopteroid-Neopteran insect order?

  • (1) Neuroptera
  • (2) Mecoptera
  • (3) Coleoptera
  • (4) Plecoptera

Question 38:

What is the family of the Mango mealybug?

  • (1) Coccidae
  • (2) Flatidae
  • (3) Pseudococcidae
  • (4) Margarodidae

Question 39:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Virus transmission by whitefly is persistent and circulative type.
Statement (II): Virus transmission by hoppers is circulative and usually propagative type.

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
  • (3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
  • (4) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Question 40:

The Müller's organ in insects is associated with:

  • (1) Olfaction
  • (2) Chemoreception
  • (3) Hearing
  • (4) Respiration

Question 41:

The caudal sensory organ showing sexual dimorphism is associated with:

  • (1) Reproduction
  • (2) Excretion
  • (3) Secretion
  • (4) Movement

Question 42:

The apparatus used for the extraction of cysts from soil is:

  • (1) Cobb’s sieve
  • (2) Fenwick can
  • (3) Oostenbrink elutriator
  • (4) Baermann’s funnel

Question 43:

DIPA was passed by the Government of India in the year:

  • (1) 1946
  • (2) 1954
  • (3) 1914
  • (4) 1910

Question 44:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Bacillus thuringiensis is effective against the mosquito.
Statement (II): Bacillus sphaericus is effective against the mosquito.

  • (1) Both statements I and statement II are correct
  • (2) Both statements I and statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Question 45:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Central Agricultural University is in Jorhat
Statement (II): Central Agricultural University is in Imphal

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 46:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                                               List-II
(A) Handbook of Agriculture                                        (I) Academic Press Inc
(B) Elements of Economic Entomology                     (II) Brillion Publishing
(C) Theory and Practice of Biological Control          (III) Westville Publishing House
(D) Biological Pest Suppression                                (IV) ICAR

 

  • (1) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
  • (2) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
  • (3) A-(III), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(I)
  • (4) A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III)

Question 47:

In Calvin cycle, Rubisco incorporates CO\textsubscript{2} into ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate which rapidly splits into:

  • (1) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
  • (2) 2,3 phosphoglyceric acid
  • (3) 3 phosphoglycerate
  • (4) 1,3 diphosphoglycerate

Question 48:

Match List-I with List-II
List-I                                           List-II
(A) Potyviridae                        (I) Thrips
(B) Tospovirus                        (II) Whitefly
(C) Badnavirus                       (III) Aphids
(D) Begomovirus                   (IV) Mealybugs

 

  • (1) A-(I), B-(III), C-(II), D-(IV)
  • (2) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
  • (3) A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III)
  • (4) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)

Question 49:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                     List-II
(A) Abiotic resistance                        (I) GM Maize (Corn borer)
(B) Herbicide resistance                   (II) Drought
(C) Insect resistance                         (III) GM Crop (Glyphosate)
(D) Pathogen resistance                   (IV) Cucumber Mosaic Virus

 

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-I

Question 50:

Carnivorous species which actively pursue their prey have:

  • (1) Prognathous mouthparts
  • (2) Hypognathous mouthparts
  • (3) Opisthognathous mouthparts
  • (4) Opisthorhynchous mouthparts

Question 51:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (i): Aedes aegypti contains no anti-coagulant and the blood clots in the stomach within 15 minutes of feeding.
Statement (ii): Aedes aegypti contains an anti-coagulant which prevents the blood clots in the stomach within 15 minutes of feeding.

In light of the above statements, choose the \textit{most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 52:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                  List-II
(A) Oak tasar silk worm                  (I) Jharkhand
(B) Muga silk worm                         (II) Uttarakhand
(C) Mulberry silk worm                   (III) Assam
(D) Tropical tasar silkworm            (IV) Karnataka

 

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Question 53:

The "Begging Bowl" status in India with regards to chronic food shortage was referred during:


Question 54:

Book lungs are the respiratory organs in:


Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Linkage was given by G. Mendel
Statement (II): Linkage was given by T.H. Morgan

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:


Question 56:

Fungicide is obtained from:


Question 57:

Peanut bud necrosis virus (PBND) is transmitted by:

(A) Aphis gossypii and Myzus persicee
(B) Aphis maydis and Toxoptera graminum
(C) Thrips palmi and Frankimella schultzei
(D) Planococcoides njalensis and Pentalonia nigronervosa

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 58:

After hatching, the hatching of whitefly passes through:


Question 59:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                               List-II
(A) Rugose spiralling whitefly                     (I) Encarsia noyesi
(B) Spiralling whitefly                                  (II) Encarsia guadeloupae
(C) Silverleaf whitefly                                  (III) Encarsia inaron
(D) Coconut whitefly                                   (IV) Encarsia sophia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 60:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): In Soyabean, generally, 75-80 kg/ha seed is recommended in kharif
Statement (II): For spring season soyabean crop, 100 kg/ha seed is recommended

In light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 61:

Insect cells housing the symbionts are known as:


Question 62:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                 List-II
(A) Acorus spp.                               (I) Colchicine
(B) Neophobia                                 (II) Multiple dose poison
(C) Chemosterilant                         (III) Sweet flag
(D) Tomafarin                                  (IV) Single dose poison

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 63:

Calvin cycle represents the phenomenon of:


Question 64:

The ETL for insect vectors in pest management is:

(A) 0%
(B) 0 to 0.5 %
(C) 1.0 to 1.5 %
(D) 2.0 to 2.5 %

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 65:

Aquatic insect family Sisyridae belongs to order:


Question 66:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (i): Stubby root nematode are also known as Longidorids
Statement (ii): Stubby root nematode are also known as Trichodorids

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 67:

The size (mm) of a healthy adult Laccifer lacca ranges between:


Question 68:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Mosquito blight of tea is caused by Helopeltis antonii
Statement (II): Mosquito blight of tea is caused by Heliothis zea

In light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 69:

The molecular phylogenetic analysis of Phylum Nematoda (De Ley and Blaxter, 2002) reveals the presence of these major sub-classes:

(A) Chromadoria
(B) Dorylaimia
(C) Rhabdita
(D) Enoplia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 70:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Management of pesticide use is not an integral part of IPM
Statement (II): IPM is not to refine the pesticide application recommendations?

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 71:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (i): Xiphinema spp of nematodes is also known as Dagger nematodes
Statement (ii): Xiphinema spp of nematodes is also known as Lesion nematodes

In light of the above statements, choose the \textit{most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 72:

When all the segments differentiate in the embryo, the development is:


Question 73:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (i): Tomato spotted wilt virus is not transmitted by Thrips tabaci
Statement (ii): Cucumber mosaic virus is transmitted by Myzus persicae

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 74:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Helminthosporium oryzae was the causative agent for Irish Famine in 1845
Statement (II): Helminthosporium oryzae was the causative agent for Bengal Famine in 1943

In light of the above statements, choose the \textit{most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 75:

The bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis takes place in:


Question 76:

Pareuchaetes pseudoinsulata is a biocontrol agent of:


Question 77:

Which one of the following is a micro element?


Question 78:

The \(3^{rd}\) and \(4^{th}\) stage juveniles of root-knot nematodes are:


Question 79:

\textit{Bemisia tabaci is commonly known as:


Question 80:

Among the entomopathogenic bio-agents which contribute the most in biopesticide market share in India?


Question 81:

Predaceous insect which restrains its prey by sheer mechanical strength and then tears it to pieces with powerful mandibles is:


Question 82:

Bacterial plasmid contains:


Question 83:

Which of the followings belong to Poaceae family?

(A) Pearl millet, Rice and Wheat
(B) Foxtail, Barley and Sorghum
(C) Horsegram and Chia seeds
(D) Cotton and Okra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 84:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                          List-II
(A) Cotton mirid                                       (I) Creontiades biseratense
(B) Sorghum earhead bug                      (II) Nezara viridula
(C) Mung bean whitefly                           (III) Calocoris angustatus
(D) Pentatomid bug                                  (IV) Bemisia tabaci

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 85:

Nematode-resistant germplasm PNR-7 is of:


Question 86:

Chloroplasts are disrupted and the stroma separated from the lamella. The isolated stroma will fix CO\(_2\), if it is supplied with:


Question 87:

Life stages of male Laccifer lacca are:

(A) Egg
(B) Larva
(C) Pupa
(D) Adult

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 88:

Plerostigmata is present on forewings of:

(A) Hymenoptera
(B) Psocoptera
(C) Megaloptera
(D) Mecoptera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 89:

Identify the correct sequence of chronology of establishment of following organizations:

(A) Entomological Society of India
(B) Bombay Natural History Society
(C) Indian Museum
(D) Zoological Survey of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 90:

Which of the followings pertain to Classical Biological Control?


Question 91:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                      List-II
(A) Pisum sativum                               (I) Incomplete Dominance
(B) Mirabilis jalapa                              (II) Model Organism
(C) Neurospora                                   (III) Mendel's Laws
(D) Lathyrus odoratus                        (IV) Complementary Genes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 92:

Which one of the following animals come under the micro animals?

A. Squirrels
B. Beetles
C. Mice
D. Protozoa

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 93:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                 List-II
(A) Pleuron                     (I) Trochantin
(B) Tergum                     (II) Eusternum
(C) Sternum                   (III) Postnotum
(D) Legs                         (IV) Epimeron

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 94:

Arthropods have a characteristic feature of:


Question 95:

In gradual metamorphosis the young is known as:


Question 96:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (i): Banana puree is used in dairy products and bakery
Statement (ii): Banana flour and banana beverages are not becoming popular.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 97:

A segment of nematode species differing from the rest of the species in some physiological characteristic such as pathogenicity is called:


Question 98:

A stage-specific behavior in which an EPN (Entomopathogenic Nematode) stands on its tail and waves its head in three dimensions is called:


Question 99:

Which of the following countries is the largest producer of lac?


Question 100:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                     List-II
(A) Nullisomy                     (I) 2n+2
(B) Trisomy                        (II) 2n+1
(C) Monosomy                  (III) 2n-1
(D) Tetrasomy                   (IV) 2n-2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 101:

Which of the followings pertain to Rice cultivars?

(A) Sona-Masuri and Kasturi
(B) Jaya and Kalinga
(C) K-68 and Radhey
(D) Swarna and Radhey

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 102:

Which of the following is Non-ester Pyrethroid?


Question 103:

The shallow black soil dominates in which of the following States?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Odisha
D. Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


Question 104:

Which of the given gland is not found in male cockroach?

(A) Collateral gland
(B) Phallic gland
(C) Utricular gland
(D) Conglobate gland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 105:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Biological species concept was introduced by Mayr
Reason (R): Biological species concept defines species as the group of interbreeding natural populations which are reproductively isolated from other such species

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 106:

Mutual exchange of food in social insects is known as:


Question 107:

In photorespiration, glycolate and glyoxylate are produced sequentially in the following organelles:


Question 108:

Example of Root knot Nematode is:


Question 109:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (i): A taxonomic character is a feature which is present in all appropriate specimens at appropriate time
Statement (ii): The taxonomic characters should not show wide variation among specimens

In light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.


Question 110:

Which of the following fits the classical definition of an entomopathogenic nematode?

(A) Oscheius
(B) Romanomermis
(C) Heterorhabditis
(D) Deladenus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Question 111:

Webbing of leaves, buds and flowers, bores into the pods and feeds on seeds are the damage symptoms of:


Question 112:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                                                        List-II
A. The Indian Journal of Agricultural Sciences                                  I. India
B. Biology and Fertility of Soils                                                           II. Japan
C. International Journal of Food Sciences and Nutrition                 III. Netherlands
D. Agriculture Ecosystems and Environment                                   IV. USA

 


Question 113:

The codons causing gene termination are:

(A) UAA
(B) UAG
(C) UUU
(D) UGA


Question 114:

Principles of experimental design were developed by:


Question 115:

Chewing and biting type of mouthparts are also known as:


Question 116:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                         List-II
(A) Powdery mildew of mangifera                        (I) Erwinia trachephila
(B) Bacterial wilt of cucurbits                               (II) Oidum mangifera
(C) Bacterial wilt of corn                                        (III) Erwinia amylovora
(D) Fire blight of pear and apple                           (IV) Panioea stewartii

 


Question 117:

Caminaridin is extracted from:


Question 118:

Most of the non-persistent viruses are transmitted by:


Question 119:

The insect hindgut is usually more acidic than the midgut, partly due to:


Question 120:

Assertion (A): Allopatric species are those species which occupy the same geographical areas.
Reason (R): Sympatric species are the ones which normally inhibit completely different geographical areas.

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