AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing 2026 Question Paper for Shift 1 is available for download here. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi conducted B.Sc. Nursing exam 2026 on 27 June in Shift 1 from 9.30 AM to 11.30 AM. AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing Question Paper consists of 100 questions for 100 marks to be attempted in 2 hours.

  • AIIMS B.Sc Nursing Question Paper is divided into 4 sections- Physics, Chemistry, Biology with 30 questions each and General Knowledge with 10 questions.
  • Each question carries 1 mark and there is negative marking of 1/3 for incorrect answers.

Candidates can download AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Question Paper June 27 Shift 1 with Solution PDF

AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing Question Paper 2026 Shift 1 Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

One mole of glucose molecules contains approximately:

  • (A) 3.01 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\) molecules
  • (B) 6.02 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\) molecules
  • (C) 1.204 \(\times\) 10\(^{24}\) molecules
  • (D) 9.03 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\) molecules

Question 2:

Benzaldehyde on treatment with concentrated NaOH undergoes Cannizzaro reaction to form:

  • (A) Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate
  • (B) Benzoic acid and ethanol
  • (C) Benzyl chloride and sodium benzoate
  • (D) Benzene and sodium formate

Question 3:

At equilibrium for the reaction N\(_2\)(g) + 3H\(_2\)(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NH\(_3\)(g), the concentrations are [N\(_2\)] = 0.20 M, [H\(_2\)] = 0.60 M and [NH\(_3\)] = 0.80 M. The value of K\(_c\) is:

  • (A) 7.4
  • (B) 14.8
  • (C) 22.2
  • (D) 44.4

Question 4:

A solution is prepared by dissolving 5.85 g of NaCl (Molar mass = 58.5 g mol\(^{-1}\)) in water to make 500 mL of solution. The molarity of the solution is:

  • (A) 0.1 M
  • (B) 0.2 M
  • (C) 0.5 M
  • (D) 1.0 M

Question 5:

According to Valence Bond Theory, the hybridization of the central metal ion in [Ni(CN)\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\) is:

  • (A) sp\(^3\)
  • (B) dsp\(^2\)
  • (C) d\(^2\)sp\(^3\)
  • (D) sp\(^2\)

Question 6:

According to Molecular Orbital Theory, the bond order of O\(_2\) is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 1.5
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 7:

100 mL of 2 M HCl is diluted to 500 mL. The molarity of the diluted solution is:

  • (A) 0.2 M
  • (B) 0.4 M
  • (C) 0.5 M
  • (D) 1.0 M

Question 8:

The IUPAC name of CH\(_3\)CH(OH)CH\(_2\)CH\(_3\) is:

  • (A) Butan-1-ol
  • (B) Butan-2-ol
  • (C) Propan-2-ol
  • (D) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol

Question 9:

The coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]Cl\(_3\) is:

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 10:

Which reagent converts ethanol into bromoethane?

  • (A) KMnO\(_4\)
  • (B) PBr\(_3\)
  • (C) NaOH
  • (D) H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

Question 11:

A diode is forward biased by 0.7 V. If the forward resistance is 10 \(\Omega\), the current through the diode is:

  • (A) 0.007 A
  • (B) 0.07 A
  • (C) 0.7 A
  • (D) 7 A

Question 12:

In Young’s double-slit experiment, the slit separation is 0.4 mm and the screen is 2 m away. If light of wavelength 600 nm is used, the fringe width is:

  • (A) 2 mm
  • (B) 3 mm
  • (C) 4 mm
  • (D) 5 mm

Question 13:

The entropy change when 400 J of heat is absorbed reversibly at 400 K is:

  • (A) 0.5 J K\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 1 J K\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 2 J K\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 4 J K\(^{-1}\)

Question 14:

In Young’s double-slit experiment, the wavelength of light is doubled while all other parameters remain unchanged. The fringe width becomes:

  • (A) Half of the original
  • (B) Unchanged
  • (C) Double the original
  • (D) Four times the original

Question 15:

The resistance of a semiconductor decreases when its temperature increases because:

  • (A) the number of free charge carriers increases
  • (B) electron mass decreases
  • (C) atomic spacing increases
  • (D) mobility becomes zero

Question 16:

An electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 150 MHz. Its wavelength in air is approximately:

  • (A) 0.5 m
  • (B) 1 m
  • (C) 2 m
  • (D) 4 m

Question 17:

A radioactive substance has a half-life of 5 days. If its initial mass is 80 g, the mass remaining after 15 days is:

  • (A) 40 g
  • (B) 20 g
  • (C) 10 g
  • (D) 5 g

Question 18:

A coil of 100 turns experiences a change in magnetic flux from 0.05 Wb to 0.01 Wb in 0.2 s. The induced emf is:

  • (A) 10 V
  • (B) 15 V
  • (C) 20 V
  • (D) 25 V

Question 19:

A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has radii of curvature +20 cm and \(-\)20 cm. The focal length of the lens is:

  • (A) 10 cm
  • (B) 20 cm
  • (C) 40 cm
  • (D) 80 cm

Question 20:

The measured length of a rod is (20.0 \(\pm\) 0.2) cm. The percentage error in the measurement is:

  • (A) 0.5%
  • (B) 1%
  • (C) 2%
  • (D) 5%

Question 21:

Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) Leader of Opposition
  • (B) President of India
  • (C) Vice-President of India
  • (D) Senior Member of Rajya Sabha

Question 22:

The Strait of Hormuz is located between which countries?

  • (A) Iran and Saudi Arabia
  • (B) Iran and Oman, and the UAE
  • (C) Oman and Saudi Arabia
  • (D) Iraq and Iran

Question 23:

Chilika Lake, the largest salt water lake in India in the state of Odisha, lies to the south of the:

  • (A) Baitarani delta
  • (B) Brahmani delta
  • (C) Budhabalanga delta
  • (D) Mahanadi delta

Question 24:

Who was the Union Home Minister of India as of June 2025, following the general elections?

  • (A) Nirmala Sitharaman
  • (B) Rajnath Singh
  • (C) Amit Shah
  • (D) Piyush Goyal

Question 25:

Which Indian Ocean island country uses the "Rufiyaa" as its official currency for domestic and international transactions?

  • (A) Sri Lanka
  • (B) Maldives
  • (C) Mauritius
  • (D) Seychelles

Question 26:

Which condition is characterised by reduced clotting ability of blood?

  • (A) Leukaemia
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Polycythemia
  • (D) Atherosclerosis

Question 27:

Match the following:

  • (A) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (iii); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (iv); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (ii)
  • (B) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (ii); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (iv); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (iii)
  • (C) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (iii); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (iv); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (ii)
  • (D) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (ii); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (iii); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (iv)

Question 28:

Analysis of the species-area relationships indicate the value of Z to be in the range of:

  • (A) 0.1 to 0.5
  • (B) 0.5 - 1.1
  • (C) 0.6 - 1.2
  • (D) 1.2 - 2.0

Question 29:

A permanent cure for ADA deficiency could be through:

  • (A) Bone marrow transplantation
  • (B) Modified lymphocyte transfusion
  • (C) Gene therapy at early embryonic stages
  • (D) Enzyme replacement therapy

Question 30:

Filiform apparatus is found in:

  • (A) Antipodal cell
  • (B) Egg cell
  • (C) Secondary nucleus
  • (D) Synergids

Question 31:

Match the following:

  • (A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  • (B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  • (C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  • (D) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Question 32:

Common in Darwin’s finches and Australian marsupials is:

  • (A) They are all extinct.
  • (B) They show adaptive radiation.
  • (C) They have homologous organs.
  • (D) They are all found in South America.

Question 33:

Which of the following belongs to the Solanaceae family?

  • (A) Potato, Tomato, Brinjal
  • (B) Wheat, Rice, Maize
  • (C) Rose, Apple, Pear
  • (D) Pea, Gram, Soybean

Question 34:

Which disease is caused by Plasmodium?

  • (A) Dengue
  • (B) Typhoid
  • (C) Malaria
  • (D) Filariasis

Question 35:

Which growth regulator promotes fruit ripening?

  • (A) Auxin
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) Cytokinin
  • (D) Ethylene

Question 36:

Which hormone-based contraceptive prevents ovulation?

  • (A) Copper-T
  • (B) Condoms
  • (C) Oral pills
  • (D) Diaphragm

Question 37:

Below given are two statements:

Statement I: MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester

Statement II: Government of India legalised MTP in 1971

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and II are correct
  • (B) Both statement I and II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Question 38:

Which of the following hormones control(s) the menstrual cycle in human beings?

  • (A) FSH
  • (B) LH
  • (C) FSH, LH, estrogen
  • (D) Oxytocin

Question 39:

Which of the following is the correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy?

  • (A) Kingdom \(\rightarrow\) Phylum \(\rightarrow\) Class \(\rightarrow\) Order \(\rightarrow\) Family \(\rightarrow\) Genus \(\rightarrow\) Species
  • (B) Species \(\rightarrow\) Genus \(\rightarrow\) Family \(\rightarrow\) Order \(\rightarrow\) Class \(\rightarrow\) Phylum \(\rightarrow\) Kingdom
  • (C) Kingdom \(\rightarrow\) Class \(\rightarrow\) Phylum \(\rightarrow\) Order \(\rightarrow\) Family \(\rightarrow\) Genus \(\rightarrow\) Species
  • (D) Phylum \(\rightarrow\) Kingdom \(\rightarrow\) Class \(\rightarrow\) Order \(\rightarrow\) Family \(\rightarrow\) Genus \(\rightarrow\) Species

Question 40:

Which statements correctly describe Mycoplasma?

1. They lack a cell wall.

2. They can survive without oxygen.

3. They are the smallest known free-living organisms.

4. Their cell membrane contains sterols.

  • (A) 1, 3, 4
  • (B) 2 and 4
  • (C) 1, 2, 3
  • (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

AIIMS B.Sc Nursing Exam Pattern

Subject Number of Questions Total Marks
Physics 30 30
Chemistry 30 30
Biology 30 30
General Knowledge 10 10
Total 100 Questions 100 Marks

AIIMS B.Sc Nursing 2026 Exam Analysis