UPCATET Question Paper 2025 (Available):Download Solutions with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated 3+ months ago

The UPCATET 2025 was conducted by CSAUAT Kanpur on June 11th for UG courses. The UPCATET question paper is available here with solutions PDF. The UPCATET 2025 question paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totaling 800 marks divided into 4 sections with 50 questions in each subject. UPCATET 2025 on June 11 was conducted from 9 AM to 12 PM.

UPCATET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

UPCATET 2025 Question Paper With Answer Key Download PDF Check Solutions
UPCATET Question Paper

Question 1:

The angle between centripetal acceleration and tangential acceleration is.

  • (A) \(180^\circ\)
  • (B) \(0^\circ\)
  • (C) \(90^\circ\)
  • (D) \(45^\circ\)

Question 2:

What is the need for laminating the core of a transformer?

  • (A) To reduce the resistance in the winding
  • (B) To reduce the eddy currents
  • (C) To reduce the hysteresis
  • (D) None of the above

Question 3:

Number of significant figures in 42306, 0.0007 and \(6.5 \times 10^{-3}\) are respectively.

  • (A) 4, 4, 2
  • (B) 5, 5, 2
  • (C) 5, 1, 5
  • (D) 5, 1, 2

Question 4:

Which is a constant for a freely falling object?

  • (A) displacement
  • (B) velocity
  • (C) acceleration
  • (D) speed

Question 5:

The frame of reference attached to a satellite of the earth is

  • (A) an inertial frame
  • (B) an absolute frame at rest with respect to the stars
  • (C) a non-inertial frame
  • (D) a gravitational frame

Question 6:

Plane angle and solid angle have –

  • (A) both units and dimensions
  • (B) units but no dimensions
  • (C) dimensions but no units
  • (D) no units \& no dimensions

Question 7:

The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –

  • (A) 1 : 1
  • (B) 1 : -1
  • (C) 2 : -1
  • (D) 1 : -2

Question 8:

What happens to the weight of the body if the weight becomes \( \frac{1}{16} \) at a certain height? Also, consider the radius of the Earth to be \( R \).

  • (A) \( 4R \)
  • (B) \( 15R \)
  • (C) \( 5R \)
  • (D) \( 3R \)

Question 9:

The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given by \( y = x - 10x^2 \). Its speed of projection is – \((g = 10 \, m/s^2)\)

  • (A) \( 1 \, m/s \)
  • (B) \( 2 \, m/s \)
  • (C) \( 3 \, m/s \)
  • (D) \( 4 \, m/s \)

Question 10:

A body of mass \( m \) moving with a constant velocity \( v \) hits another body of the same mass moving with the same velocity \( v \) but in the opposite direction and sticks to it. The velocity of the compound body after the collision is

  • (A) \( 2v \)
  • (B) \( \frac{v}{2} \)
  • (C) \( v \)
  • (D) zero

Question 11:

Choose the correct statement

  • (A) A body can be accelerated by frictional force
  • (B) There can be zero friction
  • (C) Kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
  • (D) Frictional force and area of contact between the two surface are proportional

Question 12:

The total energy of a rolling ring of mass \( M \), velocity \( V \), and radius \( R \) is -

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{2}MV^2 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2}MV^2 \)
  • (C) \( MV^2 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{5}{2}MV^2 \)

Question 13:

When the angle of contact between a solid and a liquid is \( 90^\circ \), then

  • (A) Cohesive force \( > \) Adhesive force
  • (B) Cohesive force \( < \) Adhesive force
  • (C) Cohesive force \( = \) Adhesive force
  • (D) None of these

Question 14:

Efficiency of a Carnot heat engine working between the temperatures \(27^\circ C\) and \(227^\circ C\) is –

  • (A) 0.1
  • (B) 0.6
  • (C) 0.2
  • (D) 0.4

Question 15:

Which of the following is the largest unit of energy?

  • (A) Electron volt
  • (B) Joule
  • (C) Calorie
  • (D) Erg

Question 16:

Curie temperature is the temperature above which –

  • (A) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
  • (B) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
  • (C) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
  • (D) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic

Question 17:

What is the time taken by a particle executing SHM with a time period \( T \) sec from a positive extreme position to half of the amplitude?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{2T}{12} \, sec \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{T}{12} \, sec \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{6T}{12} \, sec \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{3T}{12} \, sec \)

Question 18:

The image formed by the convex mirror is \( \frac{1}{n} \) times the object and has a focal length \( f \). What is the distance of the object from the mirror?

  • (A) \( (n + 1)f \)
  • (B) \( (n - 1)f \)
  • (C) \( \left( \frac{n + 1}{n} \right) f \)
  • (D) \( \left( \frac{n - 1}{n} \right) f \)

Question 19:

Which of the following does not exhibit polarization?

  • (A) Longitudinal wave in a gas
  • (B) Transverse wave in a gas
  • (C) Neither (a) nor (b)
  • (D) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20:

A spring has a spring constant \( k \). When the spring is stretched through 1 cm, the potential energy is \( U \). What will be the potential energy if it is stretched by 4 cm?

  • (A) \( 4U \)
  • (B) \( 8U \)
  • (C) \( 16U \)
  • (D) \( 2U \)

Question 21:

What will be the flux coming out of any surface of a cube, if a charge \( Q\,\muC \) is placed at the centre of the cube?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{Q}{6\varepsilon_0} \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{Q}{24\varepsilon_0} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{Q}{8\varepsilon_0} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{Q}{6\varepsilon_0} \times 10^{-6} \)

Question 22:

For a hollow spherical shell, potential \( V \) changes with respect to distance \( r \) from the centre. Which graph from the following represents this?


Question 23:

What does an electric dipole experience when it is kept in a non-uniform electric field?

  • (A) Only a force
  • (B) Only torque
  • (C) Force and torque both
  • (D) Neither force nor torque

Question 24:

The electrical resistance of the depletion layer is large because

  • (A) It has no charge carriers
  • (B) It has a large number of charge carriers
  • (C) It contains electrons as charge carriers
  • (D) It has holes as charge carriers

Question 25:

A potentiometer is considered a versatile and accurate device to make an electrical measurement of EMF. Why?

  • (A) Because the method involves a combination
  • (B) There are cells involved
  • (C) Because of potential gradients
  • (D) As there is no flow of current through the galvanometer

Question 26:

At a distance \( r \), two equal charges are kept and they exert a force \( F \) on each other. What is the force acting on each charge, if the distance between them is doubled and charges are halved?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{F}{4} \)
  • (B) \( 4F \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{F}{16} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{F}{8} \)

Question 27:

A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is \( B \). It is then bent into a circular coil of \( n \) turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of \( n \) turns will be

  • (A) \( 2Bn^2 \)
  • (B) \( n^2B \)
  • (C) \( n^3B \)
  • (D) \( nB \)

Question 28:

Why can't the DC ammeter measure an alternating current?

  • (A) AC cannot pass through a DC ammeter
  • (B) AC changes its direction
  • (C) AC is virtual
  • (D) The average value of a complete cycle is zero

Question 29:

Two sources of light are said to be coherent when both give out light waves of the same

  • (A) amplitude and phase
  • (B) intensity and wavelength
  • (C) speed
  • (D) wavelength and a constant phase difference

Question 30:

What does the area under acceleration-time graph represent for any given time interval?

  • (A) Final velocity
  • (B) Distance travelled
  • (C) Change in the velocity in that time interval
  • (D) Displacement of the particle

Question 31:

For which of the following is magnetic susceptibility negative?

  • (A) Paramagnetic and Ferromagnetic materials
  • (B) Paramagnetic Materials only
  • (C) Ferromagnetic Materials only
  • (D) Diamagnetic Materials

Question 32:

Which of the following materials is the most suitable for making a permanent magnet?

  • (A) Soft Iron
  • (B) Nickel
  • (C) Copper
  • (D) Steel

Question 33:

Cyclotron cannot accelerate

  • (A) Electrons
  • (B) Neutrons
  • (C) Positive ions
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)

Question 34:

In Young's double slit experiment, the central point on the screen is -

  • (A) bright
  • (B) dark
  • (C) first bright and later dark
  • (D) first dark and later bright

Question 35:

The isotope generally used for the treatment of cancer is -

  • (A) I-131
  • (B) Hg-197
  • (C) O-15
  • (D) Co-60

Question 36:

An Astronomical Unit, or AU, is the average distance between

  • (A) The Sun and Neptune
  • (B) The Sun and Earth
  • (C) The Earth and the Moon
  • (D) The Sun and Mercury

Question 37:

Displacement current is due to -

  • (A) the flow of electrons
  • (B) the varying electric field
  • (C) the ionization of atmosphere
  • (D) the flow of protons

Question 38:

Photons and alpha particles have the same de-Broglie wavelength. What is the same for both of them?

  • (A) Energy
  • (B) Time period
  • (C) Frequency
  • (D) Momentum

Question 39:

On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a PN junction diode, current

  • (A) Increases slowly
  • (B) Remains fixed
  • (C) Suddenly increases
  • (D) Decreases slowly

Question 40:

The output of the two-input OR gate is high

  • (A) Only if both inputs are high
  • (B) Only if both inputs are low
  • (C) Only if one input is high and the other is low
  • (D) If at least one of the inputs is high

Question 41:

NAND gate means

  • (A) Inversion followed by AND gates
  • (B) AND gates followed by an inverter
  • (C) AND gate followed by OR gate
  • (D) None of these

Question 42:

A gun of mass 1000 kg fires a projectile of mass 1 kg with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/s. The velocity of recoil of the gun in the horizontal direction is

  • (A) 5 m/s
  • (B) 0.1 m/s
  • (C) 15 m/s
  • (D) 20 m/s

Question 43:

Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

  • (A) OR
  • (B) NAND
  • (C) AND
  • (D) NOR

Question 44:

The number of turns in the primary coil of a transformer is 200 and the number of turns in the secondary is 10. If 240 V AC is applied to the primary, the output from the secondary is –

  • (A) 6 V
  • (B) 12 V
  • (C) 24 V
  • (D) 48 V

Question 45:

If the radius of Bohr's first orbit is \( a_0 \), what is the radius of the \( n \)th orbit?

  • (A) \( n a_0 \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{a_0}{n} \)
  • (C) \( n^2 a_0 \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{a_0}{n^2} \)

Question 46:

Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, which of the following lies wholly in the ultraviolet region?

  • (A) Balmer Series
  • (B) Paschen Series
  • (C) Brackett Series
  • (D) Lyman Series

Question 47:

Isotopes of an element have a different number of

  • (A) Proton
  • (B) Neutron
  • (C) Electron
  • (D) Atom

Question 48:

The process of heat transfer in which heat is transferred with actual migration of medium particles is known as

  • (A) Conduction
  • (B) Convection
  • (C) Radiation
  • (D) Reflection

Question 49:

A body of mass 500 gram is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What is the difference in its kinetic energies at the top and the bottom of the circle?

  • (A) 4.9 J
  • (B) 19.8 J
  • (C) 2.8 J
  • (D) 9.8 J

Question 50:

Energy is not carried by

  • (A) Longitudinal progressive wave
  • (B) Electromagnetic waves
  • (C) Transverse progressive waves
  • (D) Stationary wave

UPCATET 2025 Exam Pattern 

Component Details
Mode of Exam Offline (Pen and Paper-based Test)
Duration 3 Hours (180 Minutes)
Total Questions 200 MCQs
Total Marks 800 Marks
Marking Scheme +3 for each correct answer, -1 for each incorrect answer
Section-wise Distribution
  • Agriculture – 50
  • Physics – 50
  • Chemistry – 50
  • Mathematics/Biology – 50
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Language of Paper English/Hindi

UPCATET 2025 Exam Hall Tips

UPCATET Questions

  • 1.
    What happens to the weight of the body if the weight becomes \( \frac{1}{16} \) at a certain height? Also, consider the radius of the Earth to be \( R \).

      • \( 4R \)
      • \( 15R \)
      • \( 5R \)
      • \( 3R \)

    • 2.
      When the angle of contact between a solid and a liquid is \( 90^\circ \), then

        • Cohesive force \(>\) Adhesive force
        • Cohesive force \(<\) Adhesive force
        • Cohesive force \( = \) Adhesive force
        • None of these

      • 3.
        What is the need for laminating the core of a transformer?

          • To reduce the resistance in the winding
          • To reduce the eddy currents
          • To reduce the hysteresis
          • None of the above

        • 4.
          If the weight of an object is 200 Newtons, then the weight of the object at the midpoint between the Earth's surface and the Earth's center will be:

            • $ 50 \, \text{N} $
            • $ 100 \, \text{N} $
            • $ 150 \, \text{N} $
            • $ 200 \, \text{N} $

          • 5.
            For a hollow spherical shell, potential \( V \) changes with respect to distance \( r \) from the centre. Which graph from the following represents this?


            • 6.
              At a distance \( r \), two equal charges are kept and they exert a force \( F \) on each other. What is the force acting on each charge, if the distance between them is doubled and charges are halved?

                • \( \dfrac{F}{4} \)
                • \( 4F \)
                • \( \dfrac{F}{16} \)
                • \( \dfrac{F}{8} \)

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